[greymule]

Perhaps B-R did not make it to 1st at time of illegal passing. That would kill the run.

I don't think so. BR would have to be put out before getting to 1B, not just fail to get there before the 3rd out on somebody else.

I remember this case play from years ago:

Two out, Abel on 3B, Baker on 2B. Charles grounds to F5, who elects to tag Baker running to 3B. Abel scores before the tag on Baker, but then F5 throws to 1B in time to get Charles. Ruling: Fourth out at 1B is recognized, and Abel's run does not count.

The more I think about the play in the original post, the more I think the run should NOT count. The offense should not be allowed to make a deliberate out to gain an advantage. This is quite different from the defense erring and disadvantageously putting the wrong runner out. Suppose F5 had immediately begun to run to 3B for the force, but then the runner from 1B passed the runner on 2B just after the run scored (and before the out at 3B). I can't believe the run would be allowed to score on such a play.

[Edited by greymule on Jan 5th, 2004 at 02:09 PM]