[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by BhamGuy

I think I know the answer to this question (I usually don't, though, which is why I ask). The rule cited was as follows below:

Rule 4, Section 9, Article 1F of the rulebook, which reads that a player can be assessed a foul for “attempting to gain an advantage by interfering with the ball after a goal or by failing to immediately pass the ball to the nearest official after a whistle is blown.”

My question:

Interfering with the ball after a goal clearly requires the player to attempt to gain an advantage (i.e., by slowing the other team down, I presume).

Does the 2nd part of that rule also require the player to attempt to gain an advantage (by failing to immediately pass the ball to the nearest official after a whistle is blown?)

I don't think it does, but I saw a journalist on Twitter say that because she was not attempting to gain an advantage, a Technical should not have been called, even though Iowa had already been warned for a delay of game.

I wish the rule were broken down into two separate sentences to make is crystal clear, but I think the portion coming after the comma is independent of the "advantage attempt" requirement.

Are am I wrong? (Wouldn't be the first time....today).

No, the 2nd part does not require an advantage to be gained or attempted to be gained. It is for the act alone of making the ball unavailable to the official without regard to the effect.