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Regarding RS 1.J, I was told:
If BR is out prior to reaching first, no force play. Therefore, if they appeal R1 missed 2nd on her way to 3rd, that is a timing play, so the run would count.
If the BR is tagged after reaching 1st base safely, then the force is still on and the appeal on R1 missing 2nd is a force play and if it’s the 3rd out, the run would not count.
I'm uncertain how the last sentence in RS 1.J applies, with the wording "batter-runner or trail runner is put out prior to an appeal"; as opposed to the earlier sentence wording "batter-runner is put out prior to reaching first base".
Does it say something different, or just further explanation?
IOW, does it mean the force is not removed if the BR reaches and now "possesses" 1st, even if out after that before the appeal.
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Officiating takes more than OJT.
It's not our jobs to invent rulings to fit our personal idea of what should and should not be.
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