Quote:
Originally Posted by Raymond
Didn't the NBA replay center give an explanation of the call to the announcing crew?
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the replay center didn't address which happened first, and the reality was there was a tie up above the head, Lance keeps his hands on the ball as they wrestle around and the subsequent contact was called a foul. It's also clear that the jump ball call happened before the foul call. There wasn't any kneeing going on, and I don't care either way in terms of rooting interest, it just begged the question, if the jump ball in fact happens first, then the contact that is considered a foul, I would think the jump ball takes precedent, and the ball is then dead so that the subsequent activity is ignored unless flagrant/intentional whatever you want to call it.
Kenny Smith was trying to point it out and asking, but nobody else on the set seemed to understand what he was trying to get at.
I understand it the activity leading to a foul call happens simultaneously, or leads to the tie up, it takes precedent, but if the tie up is first, then conduct rising to a foul happens, the jump takes precedent. But I don't know what the books say, and I've never seen it called that way. It always goes to foul if one official has foul call, and the other has a jump ball, they don't ever get together to determine what happened first from what I've seen. And I suppose nearly all the time the foul conduct happens simultaneous or before the tie up. I just don't know that it should always be automatically a foul in the situation I'm describing.