[bucky]

Another thread involving LGP and recent NFHS docs, got me thinking (uh oh!)

Originally Posted by BillyMac

4.23.3 SITUATION B: A1 is dribbling near the sideline when B1 obtains legal
guarding position. B1 stays in the path of A1 but in doing so has (a) one foot
touching the sideline or (b) one foot in the air over the out-of-bounds area when
A1 contacts B1 in the torso. RULING: In (a), B1 is called for a blocking foul
because a player may not be out of bounds and obtain or maintain legal guarding
position. In (b), A1 is called for a player-control foul because B2 had obtained
and maintained legal guarding position. (4-23-2; 4-23-3a)

4-23-2: To obtain an initial legal guarding position:
a. The guard must have both feet touching the playing court.
b. The front of the guard’s torso must be facing the opponent.
4-23-3: After the initial legal guarding position is obtained:
a. The guard may have one or both feet on the playing court or be airborne,
provided he/she has inbound status.

Basketball Points of Emphasis - 2017-18
4. Guarding. ... Once a defensive player obtains legal guarding position by facing an opponent with both feet of the floor inbounds, he/she may move to maintain that position in any direction except toward the offensive player being guarded when contact occurs. The defense is not required to keep both feet on the playing court and may jump vertically or laterally to maintain the legal position. If contact occurs prior to the offensive player getting head and shoulders passed the defender the responsibility is on the offensive player.

Play 1: A1 scores a layup, his momentum carries him OOB, and his shoe comes off. While still OOB, A1 grabs his shoe, takes a knee, and begins putting his shoe on. B1 gathers the ball after it is scored and sees A1 kneeling. B1 simply, while OOB, runs into the kneeling A1. Is it an automatic foul on A1 because A1 was not in a LGP as he was not inbounds?

Play 2: A1 and B2 have been defending each other the entire game. A1 scores a layup and his momentum carries him OOB. While OOB, he turns, steps IB, and begins to run back on defense. B1 secures the ball after the layup, goes OOB, and makes a throw-in to B2, who is IB. B2 quickly dribbles up the court and runs into A1 (back is to B2) from behind. Is it an automatic foul on A1 because A1 was not in a LGP as he was never facing his opponent?


Silly, I know, but are these examples of loopholes in the wording used for LGP? Or, is there an obvious misinterpretation?