All due respect, how is this different from the case that I posted in my recent thread "Sharing things that I've learned here…", in which I was told that it is an immediate foul ball as soon as the interference happens, thereby no out.

Speaking ASA

A batted ball has no given status until an event involving the ball as listed in the definitions of Fair or Foul occurs.

8.2.F.1 clearly notes the BR is out if interfering with a defender attempting to field a batted ball.

A batted ball is any pitched ball which contacts the bat and "lands" in either fair or foul territory. Please note that it states where the ball lands, not that is applies a status to the ball in doing so.

Yes, this is a different requirement for INT than that applied to a runner, but it is what it is and I suspect it is maintained as such to address the scenario prevented in the OP

So if the OP had said it was R1 at third who pushed F1 out of the way while the ball was in foul territory while R1 was going home, and the ball ended up hitting the third base bag, this would be covered under 8-7-J, and R1 would not be guilty of INT? Why the inconsistency on practically exact plays?

Irish:

Thanks. I will put my check in the mail Monday morning, ;).

MTD, Sr.

If I knew that, I would probably have stated it long ago. I've had many sensible proposed changes (all which have been discussed on this or a preceding board) that have been rejected.

It took me two years to get the D3K rule corrected. The actions and arguments you see at some of these committee meetings do not make sense and it is unbelievable how some things are so engrained in peoples' minds that they cannot see the obvious even if you read it to them from the rule book.

It's in there Mike. See 2-25-1e. Practically word-for-word with what's written in NCAA and ASA.