What is this?

[Dakota]

No runners on base. Batter hits an infield grounder to F5, who fumbles a bit, and makes a not very good throw to F3, pulling F3 off the bag toward home. F3 makes the catch, but is reaching back with her foot to try to find the bag, unsuccessfully. Her flailing foot/leg is stretched out into foul territory, tripping up the BR, who goes down. F3 does find the bag and touch it before the BR can scramble over to the base.

So, what is this?

[RKBUmp]

From description of F3 reaching for the base with foot I would assume this happened right at 1st base. Did batter/runner fall past the base after being tripped? If so, by rule they are considered to have touched the base until properly appealed. I would not consider F3 to have made a proper appeal unless they verbally indicated the batter/runner had missed the base.

[Manny A]

Can't have obstruction since F3 has the ball in her possession. She didn't intentionally trip the BR (and even if she had, I'm not sure what rule you would use to award the BR first since it's still not covered by the obstruction rule).

I don't see anything that would warrant a call other than an out at first on the BR, unless I'm missing something.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by Dakota

No runners on base. Batter hits an infield grounder to F5, who fumbles a bit, and makes a not very good throw to F3, pulling F3 off the bag toward home. F3 makes the catch, but is reaching back with her foot to try to find the bag, unsuccessfully. Her flailing foot/leg is stretched out into foul territory, tripping up the BR, who goes down. F3 does find the bag and touch it before the BR can scramble over to the base.

So, what is this?

Rule set?

[Dakota]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

Rule set?

ASA.

Also, to answer RKBUmp's question, she was far enough up the line that the BR fell just short of 1B, so no appeal.

[MD Longhorn]

I have an out.

[Rich Ives]

So is RKBUmp wrong in the softball world? (It's the right approach in baseball.)

[RKBUmp]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

So is RKBUmp wrong in the softball world? (It's the right approach in baseball.)

He indicated in another post the batter/runner fell short of 1st base so having passed the base never came into play.

[Manny A]

I'm still waiting for something that isn't apparent to me, even after a multitude of cups of coffee. I don't understand how this isn't a pretty straightforward situation, especially since Mike felt compelled to ask for a specific rule set.

Is there something out there where this F3 would be guilty of some infraction? I cannot see awarding the BR first base here since F3 had possession of the ball.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Manny A

I'm still waiting for something that isn't apparent to me.

I don't think there's anything not apparent to you, or the rest of us. I think this is one of those, "Something looked odd there but I didn't know what to call, so I'll ask about it on the forum" situations. And as it turns out, there's nothing to call.

It could be one of those "an umpire in my game called XXXXX on a weird play in my game and I didn't understand why, so I'll ask about it on the forum" situations - in which case the umpire probably messed up.

[Dakota]

It's a case of "the right call just doesn't seem right". The fielder extended her leg into the path of the runner, tripping the runner, and without tripping the runner, was not going to get the out.

[Manny A]

Originally Posted by Dakota

It's a case of "the right call just doesn't seem right". The fielder extended her leg into the path of the runner, tripping the runner, and without tripping the runner, was not going to get the out.

Okay, I can see that.

Where it gets even more dicey is when you see something blatant, and there's nothing you can really do about it, short of a warning for unsporting behavior. Say with R1 at first, there's a ground ball to F4, and after fielding it, she falls face-first to the ground in R1's path. R1 tries to hurdle F4, and F4 intentionally lifts one of her legs and trips her. As R1 does her own faceplant, F4 recovers and tosses the ball to F6 covering second.

I don't think there's a rule that you can use here to award R1 second base.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Okay, I can see that.

Where it gets even more dicey is when you see something blatant, and there's nothing you can really do about it, short of a warning for unsporting behavior. Say with R1 at first, there's a ground ball to F4, and after fielding it, she falls face-first to the ground in R1's path. R1 tries to hurdle F4, and F4 intentionally lifts one of her legs and trips her. As R1 does her own faceplant, F4 recovers and tosses the ball to F6 covering second.

I don't think there's a rule that you can use here to award R1 second base.

Like in that other thread where I went so far as to say that if a fielder with the ball (F3 in that other thread) clearly intentionally (yet not maliciously) pushed the runner so that they couldn't reach the base - you really don't have grounds for any call on the fielder.

[Andy]

Originally Posted by Manny A

Okay, I can see that.

Where it gets even more dicey is when you see something blatant, and there's nothing you can really do about it, short of a warning for unsporting behavior. Say with R1 at first, there's a ground ball to F4, and after fielding it, she falls face-first to the ground in R1's path. R1 tries to hurdle F4, and F4 intentionally lifts one of her legs and trips her. As R1 does her own faceplant, F4 recovers and tosses the ball to F6 covering second.

I don't think there's a rule that you can use here to award R1 second base.

As much as I hate to say it....Rule 10-1.

Before you all start in with the "judicious use of rule 10" stuff, are you really going to allow a fielder with the ball to intentionally trip a runner to increase the defense's chance to get an out? As I see it, the rules seem to have been written with the thought in mind that if a fielder with the ball and a runner are in close proximity, the fielder should just tag the runner to get the out. Manny's example, while I have never seen it, is a realistic situation that could and probably has happened. I'm ruling a dead ball, awarding the runner second base and potentially ejecting the defender for the trip.

From what I can see, this is a situation not specifically covered in the rules.

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Like in that other thread where I went so far as to say that if a fielder with the ball (F3 in that other thread) clearly intentionally (yet not maliciously) pushed the runner so that they couldn't reach the base - you really don't have grounds for any call on the fielder.

We had a similar play this last weekend, R1 on first, base hit to the outfield, R1 takes a big turn around second, ball is thrown to F4 who is on the right field side of second base about 6 - 7 feet. R1 starts to return to second, F4 moves to tag R1, R1 gets to the bag standing up a split second before F4 applies the tag. Since both players were coming from opposite directions, the force of the tag knocked R1 off of second base. F4 holds the tag on R1 off the base.

BU calls R1 safe, then dead ball and places R1 back on second.

[youngump]

Originally Posted by Andy

As much as I hate to say it....Rule 10-1.

From what I can see, this is a situation not specifically covered in the rules.

I'm not sure that's right. From time to time around here someone will come around and ask if such and such is illegal because they can't find a rule that makes it legal. And they'll hear. "If it's not against the rules, it's legal." Now you're saying if it's not against the rules than it's a 10-1 situation and I think that oversimplifies the situation greatly.