Interference/Does the run score

[DaveASA/FED]

I had a play the other night that made me wonder. Here is the situation ASA Fast pitch 10U I am BU with no safety base at 1st: R1 on 3rd R2 on 2nd 2 outs. Batter hits ball to 3rd base who is playing in she fields it and throws to 1st. I am moving into the infield as the ball is thrown I set up and see F3 reach for the ball and fall forward with the ball going past her mitt and rolling past 1st base. I call BR safe. R1 and R2 scored. Now after action PU calls me to a conference he asks if I saw the BR shove F3. I said No. We had a discussion about whether F3 was in the path, did BR have room to avoid the collosion etc. and decided it was interference. We come out of the conference and declare BR out for interference. Question #1) Since my PU saw something I could not see from my angle was it correct to make the "delayed" interference call? (If he saw it I wish he would have called it right away!)

Question #2) Now that we have the BR out prior to reaching first does this nullify the two runs that scored on the play? I see two things. 1) If PU would have called interference when it happened we could have then judged if R1 had crossed the plate prior to interference (possible as runners were fast and getting a big lead on the pitch). But 1 thing still makes me think. Since the BR was put out prior to reaching 1st base safely for the 3rd out of the inning does this nullify the runs no matter when they crossed the plate??

[ChampaignBlue]

My 1st impression was that you had a train wreck, fielder falling into the runner, but you say that you had a discussion with your partner so I'll take your call of INT. No runs. INT kills the play except when allowing the defense to field a fly ball and then kills the play (i.e.coaches INT with runner on a flyball, runner out and batter out if defense catches ball).

[SC Ump]

Interference should be called immediately. I personally believe it should be called only by the umpire that is responsible for that call. (An umpire out of position possibly might see something that from wherever they are looks like something is it not.) I think you will find many that feel differently about this.

In this case, I don't believe it is the PU's call.

However, if after discussing the call you decide that it is interference and you call the interfernce, then the BR is out and the play is dead at the moment the interference took place.

Being that there were two outs, if the interference happened before the BR touched first, then no runs can score since the BR never reach first base. If the interference had of happened after the BR touched first, only the runs that had scored prior to the interference would count.

[DownTownTonyBrown]

I'm with ChampagneBlue... somewhat. This sounds like incidental contact.

When was the contact between BR and F3? And where were the runners?

After the throw had arrived and been missed by F3 - incidental contact. Play on.

Before the throw arrived and the contact caused F3 to miss the catch - interference, BR is out, runners stop advancing at time of interference and must return to last base touched (runner from 3rd may have already scored - count it).

If the contact was intentional then based upon the severity and its timing, I might:
Send runners back to 2nd and 3rd, BR out.
Eject BR for malicious contact and stop play at time of interference - possibly allow runner from 3rd to score. Maybe not, too.
Call dead ball and leave BR at 1st but call runner from 3rd out for the BR's interference and the defense's potential play at home.

Anything besides the first two possibilities will require decisive umpire judgement and confidence to sell those out of the ordinary calls.

[rafking]

I have read the play explanation a few times. I keep coming back to the word 'shove'. If PU used the word shove, then USC must have happened, so I would eject the player, then no runs would score. Why use such a word that can only cause one to think that it was intentional, if it was not true.

Let's say it was more of a bump which caused F3 to miss the ball. F3 had to be somewhat in the baseline trying to catch the not perfect thrown ball, when a bump like this occurred. Then both players had a right to be at the same place at the same time when the ball was coming. Then only a crash occurred with no call from the ump.

[SamNVa]

DTTB, et. al.,

IF the BR is declared out for interference before reaching 1st base for the 3rd out of the inning, then no runs can score. Timing doesn't matter.

SamC

[Dakota]

This was a thrown ball. Therefore for interference to be called, it would have to be intentional.

"Shove" ... sounds intentional, but remember, this was 10U.

A 10U player "shoving" another is probably just trying to avoid a collision, unless it was blatant.

It sound to me like incidental contact.

But, to your questions,

1) Normally I would have expected him to call interference immediately if he saw it, or to let the call stand unless you ask him for his input. Once he takes it upon himself to give you his input, it is still your call if you wish to make a correction.

2) BR is out before reaching 1st base (as Sam said), so no runs would score.

[DownTownTonyBrown]

Originally posted by SamNVa
DTTB, et. al.,

IF the BR is declared out for interference before reaching 1st base for the 3rd out of the inning, then no runs can score. Timing doesn't matter.

SamC

Yes, you are correct. Interference before reaching first and causing the THIRD out would be the same as a force out because the BR never reached first - no runs score.

My mistake.

[WestMichBlue]

Dakota: "This was a thrown ball. Therefore for interference to be called, it would have to be intentional.

Interference with a thrown ball would have to be intentional. But we are talking about interfering with a fielder attempting to make a play. Intent not required.

WMB