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Centerfield9 Tue May 01, 2012 04:40pm

Incorrect infield fly rule called
 
Runners on 1st and 3rd. Batter hits an infield fly. Umpire calls "INFIELD FLY, BATTER IS OUT." Infielder drops the flyball. Complete confusion going on because nobody knows what's a force out and what's a tag out. How does the umpire reconcile the incorrect call?

BretMan Tue May 01, 2012 05:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Centerfield9 (Post 839783)
Runners on 1st and 3rd. Batter hits an infield fly. Umpire calls "INFIELD FLY, BATTER IS OUT." Infielder drops the flyball. Complete confusion going on because nobody knows what's a force out and what's a tag out. How does the umpire reconcile the incorrect call?

By, at the end of the play, placing runners where he judges they most likely would have reached had the erroneous call not been made in the first place, combined with enforcing any outs he judges would have normally been made.

In short, there is no "one size fits all" correct answer. You could have any combination of possiblities depending on how the players reacted.

IRISHMAFIA Tue May 01, 2012 05:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Centerfield9 (Post 839783)
Runners on 1st and 3rd. Batter hits an infield fly. Umpire calls "INFIELD FLY, BATTER IS OUT." Infielder drops the flyball. Complete confusion going on because nobody knows what's a force out and what's a tag out. How does the umpire reconcile the incorrect call?

Where did everyone end up?

ASA/NYSSOBLUE Tue May 01, 2012 07:57pm

Been there....done that.....this year. :rolleyes: I was PU, called INF, F4 dropped....then my partner pointed out that runners were on 2/3 - OOPS. We just put the BR on 1st, and even the coaches had a good laugh about it. It WAS first game back after Easter/Spring Break so.....:p

My mechanic was good though...

Centerfield9 Thu May 03, 2012 08:32am

Quote:

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA (Post 839796)
Where did everyone end up?

It got a little crazy. Pop up to 3B, ball dropped, ball thrown to 1B, tagged the base (no tag on either runner), runners on 1B and 3B hesitated then advanced at the same time on the throw, ball is thrown home, runner is safe, lots of yelling and screaming at this point, ball thrown to 2B and that runner is tagged out, play is blown dead. It took about 5 min for the umpires to sort it all out (seemed like forever).

How it ended up: runner on 3rd is awarded home. Runner on 1st is out at 2nd, BR is awarded 1st.

The main argument was the runner on 3rd. Had the IFF not been called, the runner probably would not have broke for home although he's a fast and aggressive runner.

SRW Thu May 03, 2012 09:21am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Centerfield9 (Post 840021)
... play is blown dead. ...

The umpires used whistles? Irishmafia: Is this a new mechanic I'm not aware of?








;) :p :D

Dakota Thu May 03, 2012 09:27am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SRW (Post 840029)
The umpires used whistles? Irishmafia: Is this a new mechanic I'm not aware of?








;) :p :D

Nah, just poor punctuation.

Should have been, "Play is blown." ;)

MD Longhorn Thu May 03, 2012 10:12am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Centerfield9 (Post 840021)
The main argument was the runner on 3rd. Had the IFF not been called, the runner probably would not have broke for home although he's a fast and aggressive runner.

That argument makes no sense at all. IFF or no IFF doesn't change anything at all about that runner. That runner is allowed to advance on the IFF (if it had actually been one), was not forced by anyone to run on the drop. That runner is irrelevant to the erroneous call.

However,
Quote:

Pop up to 3B, ball dropped, ball thrown to 1B, tagged the base (no tag on either runner), runners on 1B and 3B hesitated then advanced at the same time on the throw, ball is thrown home, runner is safe, lots of yelling and screaming at this point, ball thrown to 2B and that runner is tagged out, play is blown dead. It took about 5 min for the umpires to sort it all out (seemed like forever).

How it ended up: runner on 3rd is awarded home. Runner on 1st is out at 2nd, BR is awarded 1st.
If the ball was thrown to first and they tagged the base, BR is out (just like on any other normal play). Given your description of the play, I don't see either team actually disadvantaged by the erroneous call. BR is out when first base is tagged, R2 from first is out trying to advance to 2nd.

IRISHMAFIA Thu May 03, 2012 11:29am

Quote:

Originally Posted by SRW (Post 840029)
The umpires used whistles? Irishmafia: Is this a new mechanic I'm not aware of?

Yep. They are to be kept hanging on the backstop next to the kitchen timers and yellow flags :D

ronald Thu May 03, 2012 02:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 840046)
That argument makes no sense at all. IFF or no IFF doesn't change anything at all about that runner. That runner is allowed to advance on the IFF (if it had actually been one), was not forced by anyone to run on the drop. That runner is irrelevant to the erroneous call.

However,
If the ball was thrown to first and they tagged the base, BR is out (just like on any other normal play). Given your description of the play, I don't see either team actually disadvantaged by the erroneous call. BR is out when first base is tagged, R2 from first is out trying to advance to 2nd.

if you as the umpire judged that calling the iff erroneously put the br in jeopardy would you change your thinking?

Centerfield9 Fri May 04, 2012 08:36am

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 840046)
That argument makes no sense at all. IFF or no IFF doesn't change anything at all about that runner. That runner is allowed to advance on the IFF (if it had actually been one), was not forced by anyone to run on the drop. That runner is irrelevant to the erroneous call.

It does make sense. The IFF call could influence how the fielder plays the ball, and that could, in turn, influence what the runners do. In this case, it didn't matter, but to say the "argument makes no sense at all" ...uh... makes no sense at all.

AtlUmpSteve Fri May 04, 2012 11:08am

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronald (Post 840092)
if you as the umpire judged that calling the iff erroneously put the br in jeopardy would you change your thinking?

Assuming you mean br to be batter-runner (vs nontraditional base runner), I don't ever make that judgment. The reason the IFF DOESN'T cover a single runner at first is that we don't ever excuse the batter-runner from failing to run out a ball, at least through first base. And not excused now, either.

We often hold players and coaches accountable for knowing the situation; how many outs there are, even if told incorrectly by an umpire, when the D3K rule applies (or doesn't), what the count actually is (catcher not to throw to someone other than pitcher), etc. If the batter and offensive coaches don't know the IFF cannot apply BY RULE, I hold them equally accountable. No jeopardy, just poor baserunning and coaching.

MD Longhorn Fri May 04, 2012 12:49pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ronald (Post 840092)
if you as the umpire judged that calling the iff erroneously put the br in jeopardy would you change your thinking?

It is impossible for the infield fly rule, called or uncalled, to affect the actions of the batter-runner. Given that the rules tell us that it is the responsibility of the players to know the rules - BR has no reason at all to not run to first (or no excuse should he/she choose not to run when IFF was not really in effect).

txtrooper Tue May 08, 2012 07:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Centerfield9 (Post 839783)
Runners on 1st and 3rd. Batter hits an infield fly. Umpire calls "INFIELD FLY, BATTER IS OUT." Infielder drops the flyball. Complete confusion going on because nobody knows what's a force out and what's a tag out. How does the umpire reconcile the incorrect call?

Your question contradicts itself somewhat by stating that there are runners on 1st and 3rd; it then states that the batter hit an infield fly, which is a little confusing as it is read. Were there runners on 1st and 3rd only? If there were runners at 1st and third only then, the batter can not hit an infield fly.

Could the umpire have ruled an intentional dropped ball? I am in agreement that the defense has to understand the game situation and should have finished the play; the offense should have reacted accordingly to the game situation as well. If the umpire caused a player to be put in jeopardy, such as the batter runner not running because she was called out, then the umpire can fix the situation at the end of the play. An umpire would only fix it if they placed the batter runner, runner or defensive team member in jeopardy.

How did this turn out?

ronald Tue May 08, 2012 11:20pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 840233)
It is impossible for the infield fly rule, called or uncalled, to affect the actions of the batter-runner. Given that the rules tell us that it is the responsibility of the players to know the rules - BR has no reason at all to not run to first (or no excuse should he/she choose not to run when IFF was not really in effect).

that is quite strong language but when the person in charge of knowing and applying the rules errs and a player reacts to that, there has to be a redress to the screw up. And Asa has a case play for it.

8.2-30

with a runner on 3b and no outs, the batter hits a high fly in the infield above f4's head. the bsase umpire erroneously calls infield fly,batter is out. f4 subsequently drops the ball. the runner from 3b scores and
the batter (a) ends up at 2nd base, or (b) goes to the dugout when he heard the base umpire call him out.

ruling; Th e run scores. in (a)leave the bater at 2b on the correctable error; however, in (b), the plate umpire should rectify the situation by placing the batter on 1b. (8-2i: 8-2d: 10-6c) Thiss is from a case book I bought in 2003


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