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Fri Jun 13, 2003, 06:05pm
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Twice this year, different umpires called a base runner out when they were tagged by a fielder with his glove, who had the ball in his throwing hand. I thought one has to be tagged by the ball. Am I right and did the upms blow the call?
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Fri Jun 13, 2003, 06:09pm
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The umps blew the call.
They were probably thinking that the play was similar to one in which a fielder who has the ball in his bare hand uses his glove to touch a base to which a runner is forced. That's an out.
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide!
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Sat Jun 14, 2003, 12:33am
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Did the umps actually call the out knowing where the ball was, or did they not know (assumed the ball was in the glove)?
It could be a case of fooling the umpire rather than misinterpretation of a rule.
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Tom
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Sat Jun 14, 2003, 06:18am
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What about this - tag play - defensive player clearly tags runner off base with an empty closed glove and the ball laying on top of the glove in the bare hand - out or not? ( does the ball either have to be in the glove that makes the tag or directly on the runner?)
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Sat Jun 14, 2003, 07:12am
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Quote:
In the first play, I don't know if it's worse to be as far off on the rule as gm suggests or being too careless (aka lazy) to look for the ball.
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Sat Jun 14, 2003, 09:31am
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Thanks! That's the call I had in my mind, but it always helps to get other valued opinions. The situation happened because the defensive player was a step or two behind the runner and was stretching out to try and get the tag, reached up with the empty glove first and then came up with the ball in the bare hand on top of the glove.
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