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Old Fri May 30, 2003, 01:41pm
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Would runner have scored anyway had "interference" not occurred? "might have" does not constitute interference since in this case it is most likely a judgement call. I would most definitely speak with the coach of the team at bat and advise him that his players must get out of the way and subsequently at some point call "interference" if no change in batter behavior/performance was observed, depending of course on the "judgement" of the play. Little Suzie might also learn a valuable lesson on rules as well as keep herself from getting clobbered at some point. Philosophically speaking however, how do we decide which rules not to enforce? How's that for a vague answer?
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