Stealing? in ASA 10U

[sprivitor]

As Coach/Umpire in LL, I often coach a traveling team in ASA tournaments where there are some rule differences. Last night, in championship game of a tournament, Coach lights into me (coaching) about stealing more than 1 base at a time. Next thing I knew, there were 3 coaches on my tail.

Score was 9-0 our way, so tension was high on other side. Complaint followed how agressive I was running my base runners.

Situation(s): Ball hit to F6, BR runs to first and is safe on overthrow from F6 to F3, I send BR to 2nd, F3 makes bad throw to F4, I then send BR to 3rd. F4 finally makes throw to Pitcher in who holds ball in 8 foot circle. Coach on other team becomes outraged that I sent the runner to 3rd and called it "stealing" more than 1 base. He felt that the run from 1st to 2nd was a steal and then 2nd to 3rd was a steal; thus stealing more than one base. I thought that was an interesting interpretation but felt the ball was in play and wasn't a steal and runners could run until pitcher had ball in circle. Ump stepped in and gave like interpretation.

Do you consider this a steal? Isn't a steal a situation where the pitcher "pitches" a ball and it isn't put into play, but the runner advances a base? How would you define a steal?

Thanks for any input!

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by sprivitor
As Coach/Umpire in LL, I often coach a traveling team in ASA tournaments where there are some rule differences. Last night, in championship game of a tournament, Coach lights into me (coaching) about stealing more than 1 base at a time. Next thing I knew, there were 3 coaches on my tail.

Score was 9-0 our way, so tension was high on other side. Complaint followed how agressive I was running my base runners.

Situation(s): Ball hit to F6, BR runs to first and is safe on overthrow from F6 to F3, I send BR to 2nd, F3 makes bad throw to F4, I then send BR to 3rd. F4 finally makes throw to Pitcher in who holds ball in 8 foot circle. Coach on other team becomes outraged that I sent the runner to 3rd and called it "stealing" more than 1 base. He felt that the run from 1st to 2nd was a steal and then 2nd to 3rd was a steal; thus stealing more than one base. I thought that was an interesting interpretation but felt the ball was in play and wasn't a steal and runners could run until pitcher had ball in circle. Ump stepped in and gave like interpretation.

Do you consider this a steal? Isn't a steal a situation where the pitcher "pitches" a ball and it isn't put into play, but the runner advances a base? How would you define a steal?

Thanks for any input!

No, it is not a steal. It is the result of the defense taking part in a play initiated by a batted ball.

[whiskers_ump]

I agree with Mike. These were not "steals", just
advancing on
Bad throws. Defense should have just returned the ball to the pitcher
after the first overthrow.

glen

[Coach_Mike03]

I agree with whiskers_ump & IRISHMAFIA, in a batter-runner situation anything goes, even if the 1st,2nd,3rd baseman make a ERROR you can advance with the liabilty of being put out.

As far as the "1 base steal" that is only on pitches(ball or strikes)over the plate.

BUT: Realize this "If there is NO RUNNER on 1st when your batter-runner is up and she gets walked and no one is on first already, YOU CAN advance her to 2nd base with the liabilty of being put out, IF the UMP has not called time.

[whiskers_ump]

CoacMike wrote:

BUT: Realize this "If there is NO RUNNER on 1st when your batter-runner is up and she gets walked and no one is on first already, YOU CAN advance her to 2nd base with the liabilty of being put out, IF the UMP has not called time.

True, CoachMike, however, once the ball becomes dead, you must
return the batter-runner to first base. ASA Rule 8 Sec 4 H.4.
All that has been accomplished is a little exercise....

glen