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Ok, but you still can't get the runner from 3rd out
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Can someone reference what rule(s) some of you are talking about?
A few posts back, I mentioned a situation I posed at NUS on which KR ruled. Bases loaded, 1 out. Batter hits a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup near first base. Initial call is IF, batter is out, if fair. The runner from third breaks for home. She touches home before INT occurs. B/R, now potentially retired, if fair, intentionally interferes w/ F3 causing her to not catch the ball, which was in fair territory. The ruling was INT by a retired B/R. B/R is already out so the runner closest to home is also out. That runner is the one on second base. Score the run. Inning, potentially game, now over. I think the difference is that in the above case, we have INT by a retired B/R. Given the same situation and she bunted a [sky-high, for those that need this] popup, which cannot be an IF, and all other things happened the same, do we have 1 out [on the B/R who INT w/ F3], or 2 outs based on rule reference X.X.x? |
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wow did everyone get off on different plays then first described all that is stated do we score the runner from third, 1st criteria ball is not caught, 2nd runner on 3rd touched home before interference , we have 0 outs what is all the confusion do we score runnner and go home or not?
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Yes
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Pretty clear cut,except for 0 outs
scored tied,bottom of the 7th runners on 2nd and 3rd high fly ball hit to ss runner from 3rd base raises home, runner on 2nd base grabs ss as she is ready to catch fly ball (remember runner on 3rd touched home when interference accurs) would you let the winning run to score? Edit/Delete Message |
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still not possible
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tell them RW YOU CAN GET A DP but runner still scores
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I thought I did
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But, even though the way the situation was stated in the OP was an invitation to elaboration and alternate scenarios, we've never really needed a reason to go OT around here. :) |
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Deja vu.
All over again. |
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And yes, I would allow the run to score. |
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