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Old Thu Mar 31, 2011, 08:17am
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I initially also thought nothing more than just normal playing action. But, if situation were reversed, runner had not touched home yet, catcher lost ball in collision and was laying on top of runner trying to get to home plate, would we not have obstruction on the catcher?
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Old Thu Mar 31, 2011, 12:00pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RKBUmp View Post
I initially also thought nothing more than just normal playing action. But, if situation were reversed, runner had not touched home yet, catcher lost ball in collision and was laying on top of runner trying to get to home plate, would we not have obstruction on the catcher?
I had been wondering the same thing. In my mind, it really comes down to who is making a proper softball play and who is not. I'm not sure I have enough information (and probably wouldn't without seeing it) from the OP. So in my mind, I see some distinct possibilities.

A sliding R1 is trying to score while F2 awaits with the ball in the glove. At this point, everybody is doing exactly what we would expect. Now, the ball comes loose and squirts a few feet away from F2. It's what happens at this point that requires our attention and judgment.

If (a) R1 touches the plate on the slide and resulting pileup leaves R1 on top of F2, that alone is not enough to determine RR Int, IMO. What has she done wrong? She was, and is, playing the game the proper way.

If (b) R1 is prevented from reaching the plate because of a good and legal block and subsequently F2 falls on top of R1, we again don't have either player doing anything "wrong." Both are making the expected softball plays.

Now, if I judge that R1 in (a) or F2 in (b) do something that shows evidence of no longer making a bona fide softball play, then my judgment is going to cause me to call RR Int (a) or OBS (b). For instance, if in (b) the catcher continues to lay on top of R1 while F1 retrieves the ball and tags R1, I've got OBS.

If we modify (a) just slightly where she doesn't touch the plate but winds up on top of F2, do we have INT on R1? I think I'd need further evidence before I could come up with INT in either situation. In other words, just because R1 was skilled enough to actually touch the plate while sliding does not constitute INT with all other things being equal.
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Old Thu Mar 31, 2011, 12:56pm
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Speaking NFHS only:

Quote:
Originally Posted by RadioBlue View Post
. . .

If (a) R1 touches the plate on the slide and resulting pileup leaves R1 on top of F2, that alone is not enough to determine RR Int, IMO. What has she done wrong? She was, and is, playing the game the proper way.
She has interfered with the defense making a play on another runner. The rule change this year clarifies that there does not have to intent. If a run scores because the runner has pinned the catcher, is that "right".

Quote:
Originally Posted by RadioBlue View Post
. . .
If (b) R1 is prevented from reaching the plate because of a good and legal block and subsequently F2 falls on top of R1, we again don't have either player doing anything "wrong." Both are making the expected softball plays.
If the catcher is in possesion of the ball good for her. If the catcher drops the ball and the catcher prevents the runner from advancing the catcher has obstructed the runner. Again, no intent needed. If the pitcher picks up the ball and tags the runner that is pinned by the catcher is that "right".

And I am not confusing intent with "wrong". What is "wrong" is what violates the rules. No other criteria matter.
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