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-   -   Interference - Is intent Required? (https://forum.officiating.com/softball/58877-interference-intent-required.html)

ACES Coach Fri Aug 20, 2010 11:31am

Interference - Is intent Required?
 
Nobody out, runner on 2nd. R1 has left 2nd base on an infield pop up. In the process of running back to the bag to tag up, she interferes with the defensive player (F4) attempting to catch the ball. R1's foot is in contact with the base when the contact occurs. There was no apparent intent, R1's momentum simply carried her a little past the bag making contact with F4 who was waiting to catch the ball. (FYI, the interference consisted of R1 contacting F4's face with R1's facemask, cutting F4 below the eye).

If a runner is on base and interferes with a defensive player, is she automatically out or is intent required?

What is the call?
1 - No call, contact was incidental, both runner and batter are safe.
2 - R1 is out for interference. Batter is safe at first.
3 - R1 is out for interference and batter is out as R1 could have avoided contact by sliding or diving back to the bag.

Thank you for your input.

MD Longhorn Fri Aug 20, 2010 01:02pm

Ruleset?

ACES Coach Fri Aug 20, 2010 01:47pm

ASA - Minor Girls Fastpitch

KJUmp Fri Aug 20, 2010 03:22pm

Missing piece of info....did F4 end up catching the pop up?

vcblue Fri Aug 20, 2010 04:42pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by KJUmp (Post 689351)
Missing piece of info....did F4 end up catching the pop up?

KJ: It doesn't matter if the ball was caught or not. I have (2) R2 is out for interference. Batter is safe at first.

By rule you must judge intent when a runner is on the bag and INT occurs. She may say her intent was not to interfere with the play, but her intent was to get back to the base. She just did it badly and while keeping a foot on the bag caused the interference.

The reason I would not call a second out is because R1 was on 2nd, therefore there was no additional play to support the call.

Tex Fri Aug 20, 2010 05:14pm

I have an out for interference. BR gets 1st base. R2's momentum coming back to 2nd base carried her into F4. If R2 would have stayed at 2nd base without interfering with the catch, I would have nothing, play on.

KJUmp Fri Aug 20, 2010 05:56pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by vcblue (Post 689356)
KJ: It doesn't matter if the ball was caught or not. I have (2) R2 is out for interference. Batter is safe at first.

By rule you must judge intent when a runner is on the bag and INT occurs. She may say her intent was not to interfere with the play, but her intent was to get back to the base. She just did it badly and while keeping a foot on the bag caused the interference.

The reason I would not call a second out is because R1 was on 2nd, therefore there was no additional play to support the call.

VC...
It's not that it doesn't matter....it's that it could possibly matter.
R2 interfered with F4 who was attempting to catch a pop-up.
R2 is called out for interference.
If (in my judgement) R2's interference prevented F4 from catching the ball for an out on the BR, (as in F4 is right underneath the ball with her glove extended to make the catch)....I've got the BR out in addition to R2. Two outs.

IRISHMAFIA Fri Aug 20, 2010 06:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by ACES Coach (Post 689328)
Nobody out, runner on 2nd. R2 has left 2nd base on an infield pop up. In the process of running back to the bag to tag up, she interferes with the defensive player (F4) attempting to catch the ball. R2's foot is in contact with the base when the contact occurs. There was no apparent intent, R2's momentum simply carried her a little past the bag making contact with F4 who was waiting to catch the ball. (FYI, the interference consisted of R2 contacting F4's face with R2's facemask, cutting F4 below the eye).

If a runner is on base and interferes with a defensive player, is she automatically out or is intent required?

What is the call?
1 - No call, contact was incidental, both runner and batter are safe.
2 - R2 is out for interference. Batter is safe at first.
3 - R2 is out for interference and batter is out as R2 could have avoided contact by sliding or diving back to the bag.

Thank you for your input.

R2 is out for interference. The rule stipulates that the runner need not abandon a base to allow for a fielder to play a batted ball. In this case, the runner's actions initiated the contact in an area on the opposite side of the base from where the runner was.

ACES Coach Fri Aug 20, 2010 06:40pm

F4 was set up to catch the ball. Runners face mask jammed into her face causing her to miss the ball. There was a considerable size difference between the runner (very big) and fielder - tiny.

vcblue Fri Aug 20, 2010 08:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by KJUmp (Post 689361)
VC...
It's not that it doesn't matter....it's that it could possibly matter.
R2 interfered with F4 who was attempting to catch a pop-up.
R2 is called out for interference.
If (in my judgement) R2's interference prevented F4 from catching the ball for an out on the BR, (as in F4 is right underneath the ball with her glove extended to make the catch)....I've got the BR out in addition to R2. Two outs.

KJ: What opportunity did the fielder have to make a play on another player(8-7-P)? Or, how was she preventing a double play from happening (8-7-J-Effect)? These are the only two reasons to get the 2nd out, and the OP makes it clear that there was no possibility of a play to get that 2nd out (in addition to the catch). There was only R1 on the bases. R1 was on the base when she committed the interference. By book rule you call INT on R1 "Dead Ball" BR get's first.

Now let's say R1 was on 1st and she INT with F4 close to second. Then sure, 2 outs. But once again this does not matter whether she caught the ball or not. Just my judgment that she could have caught the pop up, and my judgment that the runner was far enough away from the base that she would not have made it back in time to tag up.

IRISHMAFIA Fri Aug 20, 2010 08:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by vcblue (Post 689374)

Now let's say R1 was on 1st and she INT with F4 close to second. Then sure, 2 outs. But once again this does not matter whether she caught the ball or not. Just my judgment that she could have caught the pop up, and my judgment that the runner was far enough away from the base that she would not have made it back in time to tag up.

What's wrong with the rule book if a 2nd out can be recorded on a fly ball over foul territory that could be easily caught, but not on a fair ball?

KJUmp Fri Aug 20, 2010 10:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by vcblue (Post 689374)
KJ: What opportunity did the fielder have to make a play on another player(8-7-P)? Or, how was she preventing a double play from happening (8-7-J-Effect)? These are the only two reasons to get the 2nd out, and the OP makes it clear that there was no possibility of a play to get that 2nd out (in addition to the catch). There was only R1 on the bases. R1 was on the base when she committed the interference. By book rule you call INT on R1 "Dead Ball" BR get's first.

Now let's say R1 was on 1st and she INT with F4 close to second. Then sure, 2 outs. But once again this does not matter whether she caught the ball or not. Just my judgment that she could have caught the pop up, and my judgment that the runner was far enough away from the base that she would not have made it back in time to tag up.

You are correct.
I'm wrong.
But, IMO it's a crappy written rule (the EFFECT portion) in it's current form. It's logic and rationale are not consistent with the ruling/interpretation presented in RS#33 D:
"If interference occurs by the runner on a foul fly ball not caught but, in the umpire's judgement could have with ordinary effort had the interference not occurred, the runner is out and the batter is also out."

Or, RS#33 D is not consistent with 8-7-J, take your pick.

I mean think about it, runner on base bangs into a fielder in the act of catching a routine pop-up, 1 OUT....BR to 1st. Runner on base does the same thing to a fielder in the act of fielding a foul ball with ordinary effort, both runner and batter are out...2 OUTS. How does that make common sense?

AtlUmpSteve Sat Aug 21, 2010 10:03am

While it may not make (common) sense to all, I believe the rationale is that the runners generally are where they belong when they are in fair territory, while the play(s) that led to the foul fly rule were based on players going out to intentionally interfere in foul territory. The foul fly ruling was a change to address certain plays, and that rationale was not extended to all fly balls.

KJUmp Sat Aug 21, 2010 12:28pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve (Post 689408)
While it may not make (common) sense to all, I believe the rationale is that the runners generally are where they belong when they are in fair territory, while the play(s) that led to the foul fly rule were based on players going out to intentionally interfere in foul territory. The foul fly ruling was a change to address certain plays, and that rationale was not extended to all fly balls.

Good point Steve. Explained that way, I can see the rationale of the penalty for runner interference on a foul fly ball.

Perhaps the solution to the difference in penalties is to have an Exception added to 8.7.J. that could (if warranted) allow the umpire to call both the R and BR out when this type of interference occurs in fair territory.

Stepping away from the play in the OP.
FP, less than 2 outs, R1 on 1B. R1 off on the release. Pop up to F4,
who's camped out underneath it halfway between 1B & 2B. R1 (with no intent to breakup a DP, just poor baserunning) bangs into F4. F4 fails to make the catch.
F4 was about to make a catch with "ordinary effort", doubling off R1 was going to be easy 2nd out.
If there were an Exception to 8.7.J that the umpire could apply, and call both R1 & BR out, it would seem to give the defense a fairer shake to the defense and be a bit more in line with the penalties for interference on a foul fly ball.

IRISHMAFIA Sat Aug 21, 2010 12:58pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by AtlUmpSteve (Post 689408)
While it may not make (common) sense to all, I believe the rationale is that the runners generally are where they belong when they are in fair territory, while the play(s) that led to the foul fly rule were based on players going out to intentionally interfere in foul territory. The foul fly ruling was a change to address certain plays, and that rationale was not extended to all fly balls.

It may also be that they believe that the BR would be the other player the INT kept the defense from being put out. Based on Steve's well-made point that the runners normally stay where they belong that any INT away from that area would be intentional.

Yes, all assumptions, but you never know.


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