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Tue Sep 03, 2002, 09:29am
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the batter may legally swing at a ball that has an opportunity to be struck
The phrase "that has an opportunity to be struck" seems to be the trouble here. Obviously, determining this is umpire judgment, and also (it seems obvious) a batter may swing at a ball that does not have an opportunity to be struck - what then? The wording of the rule would imply the batter did not legally swing. OOOOEEEEE, we're in for some fun!
__________________
Tom 
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