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Old Thu May 07, 2009, 01:22pm
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I know, wrong sport and not for officials, but..

I see in MLB the other day, someone stole 6 bases. Does anyone know how on the one steal, when the catcher went to throw to second and the ball popped out of his throwing hand and went straight up and he didn't even throw to second, this can be considered a steal? That's what they gave him. Seems more like an E2 to me. Dave
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Old Thu May 07, 2009, 01:32pm
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Because the runner was off on the pitch, he gets credit for the steal.

If Varitek had done something like that on an attempted pick-off at first base [w/ the runner not initially running], lost the ball, and then the runner advanced, the catcher would likely be called for an error.

As good as the Red Sox were in defending the steal [8 in total that game, including one by the opposing catcher], they should have kept their infielders in position, not made any throws, and if they were lucky enough, the official scorer might have scored them as defensive indifference.

Ted
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Old Thu May 07, 2009, 01:37pm
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On the one where they threw the ball to CF on the steal of second, and he advanced to third, did they call the advancement to third a steal. I didn't know what they called it. Dave
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Old Thu May 07, 2009, 01:41pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by shipwreck View Post
On the one where they threw the ball to CF on the steal of second, and he advanced to third, did they call the advancement to third a steal. I didn't know what they called it. Dave
No, that was a steal of 2nd and advance to 3B on the error.

Crawfor said that if he knew he could have broken the modern day record, he would have tried stealing third the last time he was on base. The steal of 2B was his 6th.

Ted
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