More What's The Calls
1. R1 on 2B, R2 on 1B, 1 out. B1 squares to bunt. F3 and F5 charge home as F4 and F6 head to their respective corner bases. B1 pulls bat back and hits pop fly towards 2B. Pitcher is closest fielder to batted ball, but cannot get to it before it lands near the 2B bag. R1 and R2 stay put as 3B coach yells for infield fly, but FU does not call it. F1 grabs ball, tags R1 and then steps on 2B for the force of R2, ending the inning. Correct call?
2. R1 at 3B, R2 at 2B, R3 at 1B, 1 out. B1 hits line drive caught by F4. R1 and R3 freeze, R2 retreats to her base to tag. F4 throws to 1B for the force of R3, but overthrows F3 and ball enters dugout. R3 scores, followed by R2 on the two base advance. R1 is awarded 3B. Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals R1 not tagging up at 3B, and ump gives an out to end the inning. Does the score of the trailing R2 stand? Should R1 have been awarded 3B having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball? 3. R1 at 2B, 2 outs. B1 hits ground ball to F8. R1 rounds 3B and scores, as F6 cuts off throw and tags B1 trying to achieve 2B. R1 scores well before tag on B1, without dispute. Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals B1 missing 1B. Umpire gives the appeal and calls B1 out for missing 1B. Does score of R1 stand? |
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________ Marijuana card |
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Just because others are dwelling on #3, doesn't mean I have to join them. But I will. More nit picking: Quote:
On the substantive points of #3, this is an interesting difference between ASA and NFHS. |
JfferMAC,
Good catch on the before next pitch. |
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<br> I'm sure I'm whistling in the face of a tornado when I say I prefer the notation R# where # is the base the runner legally possesses at the time of the pitch. I presume <b>whiskers_ump</b> is unintentionally mixing the two conventions. This confusion arises from the requirement to specify the runner's base when using R1 to designate the lead runner. R1's location is different for each situation. I believe it's cleaner and clearer in the R# notation. First and second is R1, R2 or R2, R1, it doesn't matter. First and third is R1, R3. Second and third is R2, R3. <b>whiskers_ump</b>'s second situation is... <br> <i>2. R1 at <b>1</b>B, R2 at 2B, R3 at <b>3</b>B, [or R1,2,3], [or bases loaded], 1 out. B1 hits line drive caught by F4. R1 and R3 freeze, R2 retreats to her base to tag. F4 throws [to 1B] for the force[sic] of R<b>1</b>, but overthrows F3 and ball enters dugout. R3 scores, followed by R2 on the two base advance. R1 is awarded 3B. Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals R<b>3</b> not tagging up [at 3B], and ump gives an out to end the inning. Does the score of the trailing R2 stand? Should R1 have been awarded 3B having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball?</i> <br> |
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be---R1 at 3B, R2 at 2B and R3 at 1B. B1 you referred to, has already been to the plate as have B2, B3, B4, now the batter would be B5. Simple to follow. |
From Scenario 2 in the OP:
"Prior to next pitch, Defense appeals R1 not tagging up at 3B, and ump gives an out to end the inning. Does the score of the trailing R2 stand? Should R1 have been awarded 3B having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball?" Was the second reference to R1, in the last sentence, in error? Should it have read "Should R3 have been awarded 3B for having not "re-possessed" 1B prior to the dead ball?" Why would R1, who started on 3B, need to repossess 1B? Maybe there's a source of confusion here. |
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