What (if) anything do you have?

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally Posted by THREE

Base runners on 2nd & 3rd.
1 out
1 strike on batter
next pitch--batters swings and misses pitch and ball gets past catcher.
Coach(s) and fans are hollering "run-run-run" for the runner at third to come home. Batter who now has only 2 strikes starts running to first. The first baselady is running toward home plate to cover plate for runner advancing from third. Catcher and first baselady has no chance of outing runner advancing from third. Question--if batter who is running towards first and firstlady who is running towards home to make play on runner advancing from third "collide", what do we have (if anyting)?

That would depend on whether there was a play to be made at home and, in the umpire's judgment, F3 was the one who would have made that play. If that is the case, interference would be the call.

BTW, I don't feel that the softball field is any place to "out" anyone, even if she is one the "other" team.

[THREE]

I am not sure what you mean by "a play to be made". Obviously there was a play or else there would be no reason to ask the queston. As stated there "was no chance of outing the runner advancing from third".

[NCASAUmp]

Originally Posted by THREE

As stated there "was no chance of outing the runner advancing from third".

This is what Mike is referring to. If no one has a chance of making a play, then there is no play upon which INT can be called.

Remember, interference is the act of a member of the offense that HINDERS someone's ability to make a play on a runner. If there's no chance in he11 to successfully make a play, then you have no interference.

Take this example. R1 on 1B with no outs. The ball's hit to the shortstop (who has a very weak arm), who tags 2B for the force out. B2 is a fast runner and has already crossed 1B. Shortstop throws to 1B, but R1 is in the way and swats the ball down (in a defensive move, as the ball was going towards his head). Would you call interference on that? No, because there's no chance in he11 there could have been a play at 1B - the runner's already there.

That's what Mike is getting at. If there's no play that could be made, then you have nothing.

[THREE]

Thanks

[kcg NC2Ablu]

Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA

That would depend on whether there was a play to be made at home and, in the umpire's judgment, F3 was the one who would have made that play. If that is the case, interference would be the call.

BTW, I don't feel that the softball field is any place to "out" anyone, even if she is one the "other" team.

Dang thats rough!! but as for the comment not related to politics your dead on