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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sun Sep 10, 2006, 11:21pm
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What's this?

Batter swings and misses, pitch hits either the catcher or the ground and bounces up. Batter hits the ball on her back-swing. Ball rebounds off the catcher and into the infield. Both teams play this as a hit ball.

What is it really?
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Sun Sep 10, 2006, 11:23pm
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I'd call it a dead ball. Once the batter swung and missed, it's a strike. When It was hit on the backswing, it's a dead ball.
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 06:38am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Dakota
Batter swings and misses, pitch hits either the catcher or the ground and bounces up. Batter hits the ball on her back-swing. Ball rebounds off the catcher and into the infield. Both teams play this as a hit ball.

What is it really?
Time to clean the plate while all those idiots run around the field on a foul/dead ball.
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Last edited by IRISHMAFIA; Mon Sep 11, 2006 at 09:55am.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 07:32am
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I'm assuming when you wrote "backswing" you meant the action of a player who has already swung at a pitch and is now bringing the bat back.

If this is the case, I can't call it a foul ball. It's a swinging strike followed by a bit of unintentional interference by the batter. If it's strike three, the batter is out and the ball is dead. If runners are attempting to steal on the play, you might have a good case for calling interference too.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 08:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Robertson
...unintentional interference ... you might have a good case for calling interference too.
John,

I thought that for interference to be called by retired runner, we need to have an intentional act.

ASA 8.7.P
NFHS 8.6.18

Also, Irish is correct about the ruling being a foul ball / dead ball.

ASA 7.6.K exception #3
NFHS 7.2.3
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 09:21am
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A few random thoughts...

If this play is to be ruled a foul ball, then we obviously have no interference on a potential steal situation because runners can't attempt a steal on a foul ball.

One problem I see in ruling this a foul ball instead of a swing and a miss is that the batter may have saved himself/herself from a strikeout by hitting the ball (albeit inadvertently) on the backswing. The pitcher gets cheated out of a strikeout if there were already two strikes on the batter.

Maybe we have an illegally batted ball here? The batter has, in effect, swung twice at the pitch.

Last edited by John Robertson; Mon Sep 11, 2006 at 09:23am.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 09:57am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Robertson
A few random thoughts...

If this play is to be ruled a foul ball, then we obviously have no interference on a potential steal situation because runners can't attempt a steal on a foul ball.

One problem I see in ruling this a foul ball instead of a swing and a miss is that the batter may have saved himself/herself from a strikeout by hitting the ball (albeit inadvertently) on the backswing. The pitcher gets cheated out of a strikeout if there were already two strikes on the batter.

Maybe we have an illegally batted ball here? The batter has, in effect, swung twice at the pitch.
I agree with John on the foul ball issue. If you rule it a foul ball, by the wording of the rule, this could be construed as negating a third strike on a missed swing.

I don't think that is what most of us would rule, but that's what it says.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 10:16am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Robertson
I'm assuming when you wrote "backswing" you meant the action of a player who has already swung at a pitch and is now bringing the bat back.

If this is the case, I can't call it a foul ball. It's a swinging strike followed by a bit of unintentional interference by the batter. If it's strike three, the batter is out and the ball is dead. If runners are attempting to steal on the play, you might have a good case for calling interference too.
Actually, I wrote "back-swing"... but your spelling is correct. But, that is what I meant... or more generally, natural movement of the bat after the swing attempt.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 10:20am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Robertson
One problem I see in ruling this a foul ball instead of a swing and a miss is that the batter may have saved himself/herself from a strikeout by hitting the ball (albeit inadvertently) on the backswing. The pitcher gets cheated out of a strikeout if there were already two strikes on the batter.

Maybe we have an illegally batted ball here? The batter has, in effect, swung twice at the pitch.
OK, but the rule Mark referenced is a swing/miss and contact on the follow through. It doesn't say "unless strike 3."

Maybe it should, but note the rule does recognize the possiblity of there already being 2 strikes on the batter with the reference to 7-6-L.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 10:25am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by IRISHMAFIA
I agree with John on the foul ball issue. If you rule it a foul ball, by the wording of the rule, this could be construed as negating a third strike on a missed swing.

I don't think that is what most of us would rule, but that's what it says.
If we want to talk about negating things, if the count was x-2 before the pitch, this was also an uncaught third strike (assuming it bounced up from the ground the first time). So, the batter was a BR already before contacting the ball with the bat.
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Old Mon Sep 11, 2006, 06:24pm
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Which would still make it a foul ball the second time it hit the catcher.
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Old Tue Sep 12, 2006, 09:02am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CecilOne
Which would still make it a foul ball the second time it hit the catcher.

That is why the call him the back stop!
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old Tue Sep 12, 2006, 05:10pm
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Wouldn't ASA rule 7 section 4E apply here?
4E says, "a strike is called for each foul ball when the batter has fewer than 2 strikes" which is followed by F (slowpitch) then a note. The Note states : NOTE E-F: if a pitched ball is swung at and missed, then hit on the follow through, it is a strike and a dead ball. The way i read that, if it's a 3rd strike, its still strike 3 dead ball. Batter out.
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  #14 (permalink)  
Old Tue Sep 12, 2006, 11:15pm
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Yes, it would. However, that is for calling a strike. What happens when you rule the batter out on strikes the the coach protests citing 7.6.K.3 and Effect where it specifically states that this is a foul ball. And we all know, a foul ball is not a strike when the batter already has two.

It seems there is a contradiction.
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  #15 (permalink)  
Old Wed Sep 13, 2006, 10:04am
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It took us awhile (must be the off season for a lot of folks)... but we've finally gotten to the dilema on this situation.

Less that 2 strikes, there is no contradiction. But with 2 strikes, there is.

Personally, I'm going with foul ball and letting the protest committee sort it out.
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