Interference? Maybe!

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by WestMichBlue


I just don't understand why a runner on the 3B line committing interference would not be called out the same as a B-R committing the same foul on the 1B side of the field.

WMB

Feel like you are on a merry-go-round and cannot get off?

You want to call interference with the ball in foul territory. However, to call INT, you MUST kill the play and the bounding ball becomes foul instantaneously and an infielder has no play to make because the ball is foul.

Would you call INT if a coach reached out an snagged a bounding ball in foul territory? I would hope not. The second it is touched, the ball is foul. If the ball is foul, it is not possible for the infielder to have a play. If there is no possible play and the ball is dead, how can you have INT?

Now I guess someone is going to tell me how they need to rewrite the rule, the same rule that has been followed for I don't know how many years with no problem.