Runner interference-does Ump judgement matter ?

[chuck chopper]

Grass infield & 14 year olds. R1 on 2nd, Batter hits one that dies on grass near F6 but F6 is playing deep. F6 assumes F1 is getting it, but no one does initially. Coach yells to F6 who now runs in to fetch, however R1 who initially waited is now running and F6 holds up momentarily.
By this time the batter was 3/4's down the line & in my opinion there was no play at first, and giving bad defense a "gift" out was just wrong. Could not find case book, or POE to back me up. Are we compelled to award an out anyway.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by chuck chopper
Grass infield & 14 year olds. R1 on 2nd, Batter hits one that dies on grass near F6 but F6 is playing deep. F6 assumes F1 is getting it, but no one does initially. Coach yells to F6 who now runs in to fetch, however R1 who initially waited is now running and F6 holds up momentarily.
By this time the batter was 3/4's down the line & in my opinion there was no play at first, and giving bad defense a "gift" out was just wrong. Could not find case book, or POE to back me up. Are we compelled to award an out anyway.

Which fielder had the best chance, IN YOUR JUDGMENT, to field that ball?

If you judge it to be F1, there is no interference.

[tcannizzo]

Referring to the question in the title - "does ump judgement matter?"

Overall, I suggest the answer is Yes.

In the scenario presented by the original poster, there would have to be a judgement that the interference hindered F6 in making a play. If F6 was attempting to make the play, I suggest that we have interference, regardless of which defensive player was closer to the ball. F6 might have had a better chance of making the play, even though F1 might have been closer.

Not to hijack the thread, but in keeping with the poster's question about judgement and , consider this:

R1 on 3B, B1 hits a pop up toward the 3B dugout (about half-way between 3B and HP). F5 makes contact with R1 about 10 feet down the line in attempting to get to the ball.

The pop up was not very high and in the umpire's judgement F5 would have not been able to reach the ball in time to catch it regardless of the contact with R1. Do we have interference?

[officialtony]

I will respond in two ways:

First, Your judgment not only matters - it is critical. You are the one making the calls and applying the rules. You cannot alter the rules or their intent, but applying them in judgment situations is your right and responsibility. So, yes, your judgment DOES matter;

Second, absent any contact in your scenario where the fielder waited to play on the ball, I have no interference. R1 waited to give F6 enough time to play the ball but is not required to wait all day either. If you feel that no interference was present, then that is the call you make - in your judgment. And that is how you sell it to any complaining coach.
" Coach, R1 waited to give your player enough time to make her play on the ball. I felt R1 now has a right to advance at her own risk without waiting any longer for F1 or F6 making a play on the ball. Now let's play ball. "
Hope that helps a little.
just my humble opinion.