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Tue Oct 05, 2004, 05:48pm
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runner on 2B, no one else on. Groundball back up the middle that the runner can't see because of being blocked by the pitcher. Gets passed the pitcher, UNTOUCHED, and hits the runner while still on the base. I called him safe because he was still on the base and since there was no one on 1B to make him vacant the base when the ball was hit. IS that the right call? ASA rulebook in section 8 is unclear about it. How I explained it further was if there was a runner on 1B, the runner that was on 2B no longer owned 2B and he would have been out then because he can't stay on the base that he doesn't own anymore because of the runner behind him. Is this correct and/or should I have worded it differently? Thanks
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Tue Oct 05, 2004, 06:01pm
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Quote:
Forget the wording, read the book, it is VERY clear. Check out 8.7.K and 8.8.M and 8.1.E.1-3.
__________________
The bat issue in softball is as much about liability, insurance and litigation as it is about competition, inflated egos and softball.
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Tue Oct 05, 2004, 07:56pm
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Quote:
This is one of the rule difference between softball and baseball. (Assuming all those, not touched by an infielder and not past a... etc...) If the runner is on the base and hit by a batted ball, they are not out in softball. In baseball, the base is not a haven in this instance. "Forced" or not is not a factor in this.
__________________
Dan
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