Runner hit by batted, deflected ball

[Bluefoot]

ASA Men's SP Rec league. In three years of umpiring, I've never before had a runner hit by a batted ball. Last night I had R1 on 2B, 2 outs. B2 hits a low line drive that the pitcher reaches down to tip with the edge of the web of his glove. This changes the ball's direction, and the ball goes directly towards R1 and hits him in the foot as he is running between 2B and 3B. Both F5 and F6 are behind R1. I call R1 out for being hit by the batted ball, third out, end of half inning. As defensive players are coming off the field. I stop and think about it and realize that I made the wrong call. Defensive players try to tell me that I can't change my call. I say that I can indeed correct this situation. I explain to both teams that R1 is not out, since the batted ball was first deflected before it hit R1 and he did not intentionally try to interfere with/get hit by the ball. I send the defense back onto the field to get the final out, I award B2 1B since I had ruled the deflected ball dead when it hit the runner before it had passed a fielder (IS THAT CORRECT?), and put R1 back on 2B, as I don't allow him to advance since he was not forced from 2B. Was this correct?

Or was the play supposed to be a live ball and play should have continued without me stopping the play? If that's the case, was my correction of the situation the proper one?

Thanks in advance.

[mcrowder]

Oops. You had it right the first time.

[Bluefoot]

Originally posted by mcrowder
Oops. You had it right the first time.

But Rule 8, Section 8, Clause F (ASA 2004 p. 118) states that the runner is not out when hit by a fair batted ball after it touches, or is touched by, any fielder, including the pitcher, and the runner could not avoid contact with the ball.

Based on that, R1 can't be out for being hit by the deflected ball.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by mcrowder
Oops. You had it right the first time.

No, he didn't. The only way you have the runner out on this play is if the contact was intentional. Even if the runner COULD have avoided being hit, he would have to be watching the ball and that is not the runner's job at that point. For as much as the runner knows, the ball went through the middle.

[Homer]

Originally posted by Bluefoot

Or was the play supposed to be a live ball and play should have continued without me stopping the play? If that's the case, was my correction of the situation the proper one?

Thanks in advance.

Ball should have remained live and play should have continued - assuming the runner didn't intentionally touch the ball.

But, as you called the out and stopped the play, you've got to undo things as best you can in your best judgment. You need to figure out, as best you can, how things would have ended up had you not erroneously stopped play. If, in your judgment, the runner would have ended up on third, you should have given him third and not returned him to second.

That he was not forced is not a consideration.

[mcrowder]

I entirely misread that posting. Not only do I need to delete my reply, I'd like to simply delete yesterday entirely and move on.

My bad.

[TexBlue]

Good job. It takes a good umpire to "undo" their mistake. When you realized you had misapplied a rule, you corrected it and did so as fairly as you could judge it to be.

Hope the tail chewing wasn't too bad. You deserved some of it, but not a lot. We all do at some point or other.

[Bluefoot]

Originally posted by Homer
[Ball should have remained live and play should have continued - assuming the runner didn't intentionally touch the ball.

But, as you called the out and stopped the play, you've got to undo things as best you can in your best judgment. You need to figure out, as best you can, how things would have ended up had you not erroneously stopped play. If, in your judgment, the runner would have ended up on third, you should have given him third and not returned him to second.

That he was not forced is not a consideration.

Is this correct? Should I have left it as a live ball, and let the play proceed? If it becomes a dead ball when R1 was hit with the tipped ball, or since I created a dead ball, can I put R1 on 3B, since he obviously would have made it there safely?

Now that I've thought more about it, the play is just the same as if a fielder misplayed any hit ball, and after touching the ball, an offensive player then unintentionally contacts the misplayed ball. That would be a live ball in play. So I should have not stopped play, nor called an out. What prompted me to do so was that the ball was hit as a line drive and the tipped ball was still smoking when it hit R1. I'll chalk this one up to experience.

Thanks.

[IRISHMAFIA]

Originally posted by Bluefoot


Is this correct? Should I have left it as a live ball, and let the play proceed?

Yes, if no other player had an opportunity to make an out, the ball remains lives.

If it becomes a dead ball when R1 was hit with the tipped ball, or since I created a dead ball, can I put R1 on 3B, since he obviously would have made it there safely?

If you are intent on making the correction, yes.

Now that I've thought more about it, the play is just the same as if a fielder misplayed any hit ball, and after touching the ball, an offensive player then unintentionally contacts the misplayed ball. That would be a live ball in play. So I should have not stopped play, nor called an out. What prompted me to do so was that the ball was hit as a line drive and the tipped ball was still smoking when it hit R1. I'll chalk this one up to experience.

Thanks.