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Sat Apr 03, 2004, 12:41pm
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Well, obviously you can argue this either way. But to me, the ball hitting the bat supersedes the previous bounce and changes the status to pure foul tip. In other words, once the bat hits the ball, the bounce no longer applies.
Of course, ASA might see it differently, and I'm surprised they have never ruled on this. I'm even more surprised that baseball apparently hasn't either. I can't find any mention in J/R, BRD, or PBUC.
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! 
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