If/int
 

R1 on 2; R2 on 2B with 1 out, B3 hits a
high pop up near first base line in the infield. Infield fly is called.
As F3 is about to catch the infield fly, R2 runs into F3. The ball lands in
fair territory and then bounces foul where it is finally touched.

At TOI, ball was fair. Is batter out as well?

The status of the ball, fair/foul is determined by the balls position at the time of the interference/dead ball call. If it is over fair territory, it is a fair ball and still and infield fly. Both the runner committing interference and the batter/runner are out.

Isn't it 8.7.J.1 rather than 3.
And yes, the rule says award the batter 1st.
But, by rule in Definitions, it becomes a fair ball if over fair territory when the interference occurs.

So, I was on the wrong track, and RKBump is correct. I have deleted my earlier posts, so please delete your posts that quote it.

From USA plays and clarifications:

Since the definition of an infield fly states “A fair fly ball, not including a line drive or an attempted bunt, which can be caught by an infielder, pitcher or catcher with ordinary effort when first and second or first, second and third bases are occupied with less than two outs,” a batter is not out until the ball has been determined to be fair. In this play, by rule the interference happened while the ball was over fair ball territory. Rule 1 Definition of a fair ball letter D states; A legally batted ball that while over fair territory, an offensive player interferes with a defensive player at*tempting to field a batted ball. The ball now becomes fair and the batter is out on the infield fly.

Yes, J.1 vs J.3.

So does this become another of the differences between NFHS and USA? NFHS does not include "D" from the USA definition.