Understanding an interference rule

[Tru_in_Blu]

Is “unintentionally” in the play just to force thinking, or because it was copied from an old play; or does this particular case treat intent differently?

It might be there as a red herring. Wasn't it a few years back that the book removed references to "unintentional"? Then it didn't matter if "it" was intentional or unintentional, it was still interference.

I think there's only a couple of instances now where an umpire would have to judge if the player did something intentionally. One example is if a runner is hit by a batted ball while in contact with a base. What's the other one or two?