The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Football
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Aug 10, 2001, 09:45pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Posts: 7
Question

Alright, guys...an old dog still gets confused once in a while, these have been confusing me since the 1st day I read the rules, so help me out:

1.
A1 throws a fwd. pass which is tipped by B1, A2 catches this pass behind the NZ. A2 then throws a fwd. pass downfield to eligible A3 who pushes safety B2 to the ground. A3 catches the pass.

Pass interference restrictions end for all B players when A touches the FIRST PASS. Restrictions end for all A players when B touches "the pass," or "last pass if more than one." Has A3 commited pass interference? I think I know the answer...but maybe someone's got a handy way of remebering this rule...

2.
While a free kick or scrimmage kick is in flight, R1 gives a valid fair catch signal. R2 then also gives a valid fair catch signal. R2 catches the kick and the ball becomes dead. But did R2 make a fair catch? Or can only one R player make a "fair catch"...with the according choices that follow one? In other words, after a valid or invalid FC signal has been given by any member of R, the ball will become dead when possessed by any R player. But, if 5 R's give a valid FC signal, perhaps even simultaneously, would each be able to make a 'fair catch' by rule?
Reply With Quote
  #2 (permalink)  
Old Fri Aug 10, 2001, 10:08pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 156
LJ_966

1. Yes, the A player would have commited offensive pass interference. One way to remember this is that the A players should know the play and therefore know when there is to be a second (or more) forward pass. B players have no way of knowing, so after the first pass is caught they (B players)are relieved of interference restrictions.
2. A way to remember this one is that only the first valid fair catch signal counts, but it affects all R players who might catch the ball.
Reply With Quote
  #3 (permalink)  
Old Sat Aug 11, 2001, 07:51pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 14,616
Re: LJ_966

Quote:
Originally posted by Tom Cook
1. Yes, the A player would have commited offensive pass interference. One way to remember this is that the A players should know the play and therefore know when there is to be a second (or more) forward pass. B players have no way of knowing, so after the first pass is caught they (B players)are relieved of interference restrictions.
Good explanation Tom.

Quote:
2. A way to remember this one is that only the first valid fair catch signal counts, but it affects all R players who might catch the ball.
However, protection is provided only for the player that actually signals the fair catch.
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott

"You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
Reply With Quote
  #4 (permalink)  
Old Sat Aug 11, 2001, 11:03pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2000
Posts: 80
I s that true??
I thought in Kansas that once one person called fair catch it does not matter if another player catches the ball it becomes dead, thus another player would be protected correct??
Reply With Quote
  #5 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 07:24am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 1999
Posts: 156
Thanks Bsktball Ref I sort of left an important part out there. Smoke, the only R player that is protected is the on who signals. ie: If R 1 signals for a Fair Catch and R 2 5 yds in front of him actually catches the ball, K 1 likely won't see the Fair Catch signal, so R 2 is not afforded protection.
Reply With Quote
  #6 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 08:28am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 14,616
Quote:
Originally posted by Smoke
I s that true??
I thought in Kansas that once one person called fair catch it does not matter if another player catches the ball it becomes dead, thus another player would be protected correct??
"I don't think we're in Kansas anymore Toto!"

How could protection be provided for R1, who catches the ball and is hit by K1 who is only 5 yards away, if R2, 20 yards in front of him, gives the signal? K1 can't possibly be expected to know that a player behind him gave a FC signal. See?
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott

"You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
Reply With Quote
  #7 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 11:24am
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2000
Posts: 80
Okay that clears that up, so only the receiving team is affected with the fair catch signal if r2 calls for one but r3 catches it the ball becomes dead


[Edited by Smoke on Aug 12th, 2001 at 06:34 PM]
Reply With Quote
  #8 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 01:58pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 14,616
Quote:
Originally posted by Smoke
...so only the receiving team is affected with the fair catch if r2 calls for one but r3 catches it.

Huh??
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott

"You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
Reply With Quote
  #9 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 06:39pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Posts: 7
Thanks, Tom. But, my question really is, can only one player of R make a Fair Catch... when a Fair Catch is made, Team R may designate whether to next put the ball in play by either a free kick or a snap. It may also designate where such kick or snap will be from at any point between the hash marks.

When R1 signals for a fair catch, and R2 catches the kick, the ball becomes dead, but it is not a Fair Catch. But what if R2 had also gave a valid signal, after R1, or, perhaps, simultaneously with R1. Now, if R2 catches the kick, is it a Fair Catch by definition? Or can only one receiver, the one who gives a valid signal FIRST make a Fair Catch?
Reply With Quote
  #10 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 08:29pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 14,616
Quote:
Originally posted by Smoke
Okay that clears that up, so only the receiving team is affected with the fair catch signal if r2 calls for one but r3 catches it the ball becomes dead


[Edited by Smoke on Aug 12th, 2001 at 06:34 PM]
Yes, that's better!
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott

"You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
Reply With Quote
  #11 (permalink)  
Old Sun Aug 12, 2001, 08:33pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Aug 2000
Posts: 14,616
Quote:
Originally posted by LJ_966
Thanks, Tom. But, my question really is, can only one player of R make a Fair Catch... when a Fair Catch is made, Team R may designate whether to next put the ball in play by either a free kick or a snap. It may also designate where such kick or snap will be from at any point between the hash marks.

When R1 signals for a fair catch, and R2 catches the kick, the ball becomes dead, but it is not a Fair Catch. But what if R2 had also gave a valid signal, after R1, or, perhaps, simultaneously with R1. Now, if R2 catches the kick, is it a Fair Catch by definition? Or can only one receiver, the one who gives a valid signal FIRST make a Fair Catch?
Read NF 6-5 and it should clear it up for you.

Basically:
Any receiver can call for a FC.
It doesn't matter which receiver signals first.
It's only a FC if the receiver who catches the ball signals.
If a signal is given, the ball is dead when caught, no matter who gives it.
__________________
"...as cool as the other side of the pillow." - Stuart Scott

"You should never be proud of doing the right thing." - Dean Smith
Reply With Quote
Reply

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 01:58pm.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1