Goal Line Fumble Play

mikesears · #1 (**permalink**) Tue Oct 25, 2005, 08:19am

Yes this is posted at the NFHS forum and McGriffs as well.

Here is a play I would like to discuss. I think most of us here will know the answer but I wanted to post a poll anyway.

Here is the play.

Third and goal from B's 3-yard line. A1 runs the ball to B's 1-yard line where he fumbles the ball into B's endzone. With the ball still in the endzone, B2 illegally kicks or illegally bats the ball out the back of the end zone.

What options does Team A have and why?

JasonTX · #2 (**permalink**) Tue Oct 25, 2005, 08:46am

I'll answer for NCAA. The result of the play is a touchback. B's ball at the 20. However, the batting or kicking by B is illegal. The penalty is enforced from the end of the related run (spot of A's fumble) 1/2 the distance to the goal. A's ball 3rd and goal at the 1/2 yard line and the clock will start on the snap.

andy1033 · #3 (**permalink**) Tue Oct 25, 2005, 09:12am

Same for NF.

Kirby · #4 (**permalink**) Tue Oct 25, 2005, 12:53pm

Agree with the previous responses. A's fumble is the force that put the ball in the end zone, therefore we can not award A two points for a safety by B. The result of the play is a touchback.

mcrowder · #5 (**permalink**) Tue Oct 25, 2005, 01:46pm

Since this is a "poll", I'll vote. Jason nailed it (for NCAA).

mikesears · #6 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 27, 2005, 08:08am

Thank you everyone. After a long process, they person with whom I had the disagreement has now understood that the correct ruling is either Touchback or A's ball on the 1/2 yard line.

Grey Hare · #7 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 27, 2005, 09:07am

I agree with the above answers, but what difference would it make if the covering official had ruled that the ball was "motionless" prior to B's illegal kick or bat? Wouldn't we have the safety option for A? How might that situation play out?
GH

ChickenOfNC · #8 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 27, 2005, 09:40am

Dont think you can apply force principles to a ball already in the end zone.

mikesears · #9 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 27, 2005, 11:47am

Once the ball is in the endzone, the only force that applies is the force that put it there. In other words, if the ball is in an endzone, you cannot have a new force.

Jim S · #10 (**permalink**) Thu Oct 27, 2005, 12:26pm

Quote:

Originally posted by Grey Hare
I agree with the above answers, but what difference would it make if the covering official had ruled that the ball was "motionless" prior to B's illegal kick or bat? Wouldn't we have the safety option for A? How might that situation play out?
GH

The ball being motionless in the EZ has no bearing UNLESS no one is attempting to secure possession. If it indeed became dead in the EZ we would have A in possession of the ball in the B EZ at the end of the down. That would be a TD.
I don't think you'd see this one on this play. Somebody is going to be heading for that ball, moving or not.