face mask

[bomberjeff]

I know this sounds relatively easily, but I have seen it called both ways....

1st and 10 at A's 40....A2 runs the ball and is momentarily grasped on the face mask at the A42 and goes down at the A43....now the question is this, is it 1st and 2 at the 48 or 2nd and 2 at the 48 after the 5 yard penalty enforcement?

[DrMooreReferee]

1st and 2....no doubt

Replay the down, live-ball foul

[Snake~eyes]

Originally posted by DrMooreReferee
1st and 2....no doubt

Replay the down, live-ball foul

What he said, for some reason officials get caught up on the fact that its "tagged onto the end of the run" but they get the right to replay the down.

[bomberjeff]

Thanks....I appreciate the help....that is the way I always interpreted it, but like I said, had seen it called the other way so wanted to make sure

[MJT]

Originally posted by bomberjeff
Thanks....I appreciate the help....that is the way I always interpreted it, but like I said, had seen it called the other way so wanted to make sure

It is great when new people get into FB officiating! Sometimes they do not have a mentor who is a good teacher and question answer person. These boards are great for questions of all types. Keep asking questions for yourself, or your buddies. Nothing is too basic. A quick answer to your questions will help you out tremendously.

Every year I go thru the entire rule book, and highlight important parts. I would strongly suggest doing that.

I do have 2 separate emails that have a ton of info and good stuff, especially for new officials. It is stuff I have created, and received from others, or from other officiating sites. If you would like me to send them to you, email me at [email protected]

[Bob M.]

REPLY: I've seen the same error. It seems that if the situation occurred on a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th down, there would be no problem. It's just that replaying first down so that the result is 1st and 'something-other-than-10' is counter-intuitive. People think it's gotta be wrong.

[w_sohl]

I had the same problem withthat before until someone explained it to me like this:

1st and 10 from the A45 and they are running a WR reverse, they flip it to him at the A37 and he is immediately met in the backfield by a LB and an IFM occurs and he is brought down right there. If they were to lose the first down it would now be 2nd and 13 after the mark off, if I were the defense and this were the case I would face mask every single play deep behind the LOS if that were the only way I was going to be able to bring the runner down.

__________________________________________________ ___
Do I have something wrong here? Is this an All But One Principle? Should this sitch then be marked from the LOS?

[Edited by w_sohl on Jul 26th, 2005 at 07:07 PM]

[JugglingReferee]

Originally posted by bomberjeff
I know this sounds relatively easily, but I have seen it called both ways....

1st and 10 at A's 40....A2 runs the ball and is momentarily grasped on the face mask at the A42 and goes down at the A43....now the question is this, is it 1st and 2 at the 48 or 2nd and 2 at the 48 after the 5 yard penalty enforcement?

15 yards from the end of the run, the LS or point ball held, whichever is most advantageous to the non-offending team. Plus automatic first down. Here, it's 15 from teh A-43, which is A 1D/10 @ B-52.