LOD on 4th down

[ajmc]

IFP is considered a running play (as defined by 10-3-1, as opposed to a loose-ball play). That the play ended when the IFP hit the ground doesn't change that designation.

The basic spot for a running play is the "End of the Run (with the exception of an ABO situation) NFHS 3-4-3 determines when the clock starts with a snap, which does not include when a team gains a (continuous) first down (which is what this question is ALL ABOUT).

As suggested, when the succeeding spot left "A" behind the LTG, the "loss of down' provision of IFP would end the series for "A", starting a new series for "B" for which (according to 3-4-3) begins with a snap. Since , in this example, "A" earned a "continuous" new series, the clock starts on the RFP.

NFHS: 3-4-6 is simply not a relevant factor, in this scenario.

[Robert Goodman]

Originally Posted by ajmc

NFHS 3-4-3 determines when the clock starts with a snap, which does not include when a team gains a (continuous) first down (which is what this question is ALL ABOUT).

No, but it does include when there's an incomplete pass. The first down's occurrence doesn't negate the incomplete pass's occurrence. In fact, 3-4-2 says the provisions of 3-4-3 supersede it: "for any reason other than specified in rule 3-4-3". So the only way I see the clock starting on the RFP if team A retains the ball is 3-4-6.