Not that it matters to anyone in the rest of the country, but this discussion prompted me to ask my assignor about the main point of contention in this discussion. He told me that he's had several discussions with the NF on this subject and the intent of the rule is definitely not to consider a single touch followed by another touch several seconds later as an absolute foul. The second touch might be a foul, but only if it affects the RSBQ of the ball handler - it would not be an absolute based on the rule. The hot stove touching, as BNR has described, is an absolute. He told me you can't take a literal interpretation of every single rule - common sense has to prevail. So this is how I will be interpreting the rule - pretty much as BNR and JRut have described. I think it makes sense.

The problem I see in this discussion, many people are unwilling to do that very thing. Instead they are taking their personal background and assuming it applies to this situation without an direct guidance. That is why I asked my people as well, because I wanted to be sure what I was being asked to do. Telling us that "The rule is clear" is not good enough when we are having a serious debate and the parties are separated based on their NCAA background.

Peace

*The way I read this is that 1:56 - 0:51 = 1:04 time has elapsed since the A1 dribbler had been touched by B1 (defensive player). Also, when you described that B1 had been physically positioned at minimum 10 feet away from A1 (i.e., you said that Team B coach instructed team to "fall back") for a period of time = 1:04 (a long time) when there was no contact, then A1 had gone for 1:04 without ever have been 'touched' by B1. Also, I will infer from your description that the score difference was such that forcing Team A into the bonus by 'quick fouling' by Team B's coach was not considered strategic (i.e., no reason to delay an imminent defeat).
In this specific context, the game Official needs to consider "time" and "situation". I'm sorry, but I would not call a foul on a second touch that transpired 1:04 after the first 'touch' in this scenario. I admit that I would use common sense, so please crucify my post now;)

Why 5? Why not 3 or 7? What is the cutoff? Remember they want consistency without the need for judgement. How far apart does it take for it to not be a foul?

And I do think that, practically and logically, it should actually be like that, but where do we draw the line such that it is consistently applied?

Unless they add a new count for "between defensive touches", there can be no reasonable answer to that question. It ends up being common sense and judgment, just like a lot of other rules.

But that is why we are in this place to start with. They have already decided and communicated that, after years of trying to get officials to apply good judgment to these situations, it wasn't working. The level of judgement officials were applying was not good enough. So, they made them absolutes with no judgement required.

It it an absolute or has nothing really changed? Are all of the absolutes really just open to some non-defined level of judgement?

My problem with the literal interpretation of the rule being advocated by some here is that it completely takes common sense out of the equation; like the common sense that tells not to call 3 seconds if somebody heels is on the lane line.

Plus you have things like I stated earlier with delay statics that occur where I officiate. You also have what JRut just brought up, where the first touch occurs in one official's primary, then a subsequent touch occurs in another's primary. That is going to occur quite often on plays where there is defensive pressure in the back court and the C picks up the play in the frontcourt.

The NFHS have proven enough times in the past that they do not always do a great job of having what's in ink match what is intended in reality.

I think you're far too tunnel visioned on this one specific scenario. The absolutes are still there - it's just when the multiple single touches are not immediate - that's where our judgement has to take over. I like the explanation I was given - it's clear enough and it makes sense.

Do you think it is better, for the sake of consistency, to make an edict stating it is absolutely a foul every time the same defender touches a ball handler more than once, even if neither touch, taken individually, is a foul? That philosophy makes no sense at all. Taken literally, the rule swings the pendulum way too far in the other direction. Two touches, neither of which individually are fouls, separated by time and distance were not where the problem of poor judgment was occurring. The problem was multiple, continuous touches that were not being called. The NCAA-M rule makes more sense logically, is more in line with the rest of the rule book in regards to what constitutes a foul, and makes more sense mechanistically (unless you want to encourage more ball watching).

By the literal reading of the rule, yes.

Yes, that's why I said it's unenforceable.

I find trying to read the minds of the rule committee to be an exercise in futility. I will readily agree with you that they often don't want the rules enforced the way they write them.

Most rules are not literal. Most rules are written and then there interpretations are there to suggest how we enforce or apply the rules. And it it is unenforceable, why would anyone suggest that this is the rule if someone claims you cannot enforce this consistently?

We cannot even have the NF agree on their interpretations about backcourt violation or what their language means. But the same people that complain about this issue, are the same people wanting to stick with an interpretation.

Peace

Yes...and so does the NCAA...both men an women. That is the point of the 4 absolutes. Of course, the specific absolutes can be and have been defined somewhat differently. I can imagine several occurrences of all four of the absolutes that I would not previously have called a foul. The NCAA and the NFHS decided that the judgement we were all applying to these plays, after years to POEs was not good enough. So, they took the judgement away (in slightly different ways).
Maybe, or maybe those in charge felt that those touches should have often been fouls too. If not for an advantage, why does a defender need to ever put their hands on the ball handler? They split the difference and give the one defender on minor touch for free.
Not really, two touches, back to back, neither of which would be fouls on their own just because they happen within 3-4 seconds are not any more a foul than touches that happen 10 or more seconds apart.

But again, I don't like the timeless element because I do agree that it really is not what they wanted to eliminate and it would be impractical to administer consistently across coverage areas.

Had a meeting last night. I asked our area coordinator about this discussion. His take was....

By the literal wording of the rule, it would be a foul. He then said there was no way he was calling a foul for the second touch that happened in the frontcourt, 10 seconds after the first touch in the backcourt.

He also said that if you have a touch and then the ball handler and the defensive player get outside the 6 FT legal guarding requirements and then re-engage and there is a second touch, he didn't think he would call a foul for that second touch. Unless it affected RSBQ.

I think to keep trying to make this point that the literal wording of the rule is silly. Either that was the intent of the rule or it was not.

I will give some of you credit, at least you are asking people you work for instead of just taking some interpretation from the NCAA and considering it law.

Peace

Appreciate it.