Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 927226)

When the officials each blow the whistle (with the intent of making different calls)? When they each give a preliminary signal? After they come together and still can't decide?"

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 927227)

Once again, a case of the NFHS making an "unannounced" editorial change, with no explanation. Why?" Why? Inquiring minds want to know.

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 927229)

... When one reports to the table and the other comes along, pushes his partner out of the way, and reports a conflicting call?

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 927226)

I think the question needs to be along the lines of "At what point does it become a required double foul? When the officials each blow the whistle (with the intent of making different calls)? When they each give a prelimninary signal? After they come together and still can't decide?"

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey (Post 927228)

BillyMac, I think that JAR would explain to the coach, "I agree with my partner that he/she had a much better look since the play was in his primary. But, if my partner and I still wanted to stick with our rulings after consulting with each other, then we would go with the double foul similar to the case play in that book."

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey (Post 927230)

But it did have an * prominently displayed in this year's book?

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 927233)

I'm starting to get that (the possibility of a discussion ending with one agreed upon ruling) but I don't quite get that "vibe" from the casebook play, even with the revised wording (rule).

Let's say that we have one official give the blocking signal (no fists, open hands), and the other give a player control signal (hand behind the head), both really selling their calls. Let's also say that the coach is a former official (we actually have a few of those around here). The officials get together, one changes his "ruling", and the former official coach gets screwed. After the game, he points out the caseplay to his athletic director. The next morning the athletic director calls the assigner. That night, the assigner calls the referee and asks, "Why didn't you rule a double foul on that play, as the casebook play requires?". How do you answer? just another ref made me do it?

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey (Post 927237)

It does allow for some wiggle room if you buy into JAR's reasoning especially considering the wording change.

Originally Posted by ronny mulkey (Post 927224)

Rut,

Somewhere back there, JAR has been very clear that he thinks the case play that most people refer to does NOT apply to the scenario where two officials come together to discuss conflicting signals. He thinks the case play refers to two officials that remain steadfast with their "rulings" therefore they would use the double foul process outlined in the existing case play. But, because the case play does not expressly forbid it, he thinks that it is okay for officials to discuss and come away with one ruling.

If you also consider that the case play went through a minor change in the wording "rules" verses "calls", then his slant is interesting. At least, to me.

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 927233)

The officials get together, one changes his "ruling", and the former official coach gets screwed.

Originally Posted by JRutledge (Post 927242)

No he hasn't. The issue has long been discussed beyond this discussion or recent thread where he decided to contact Ms. Wynn. And if he wanted true clarification, then make it clear what we have discussed here and what he has actually debated. Do not leave out the most important part of the discussion. If he wants a true answer, then ask that part of the question. If he wants to get what he got with "The officials must come together and decide...." then ask the question he did. No one here to my knowledge has said simply blowing the whistle means we have to stand by our calls each. It is clear the issue is the preliminary signal and if we still go to a double foul.

Peace

Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 927049)

Okay, here's the rest of it.

Me: Thanks for the quick response. The main point of contention is what happens when the two officials, unfortunately, mistakenly give opposite preliminary signals and whether this changes the equation. Please advise.


Her: It does not change the equation. They still should come together and talk to make a final decision. If the decision is to go one way over another then that person goes to the table to report. If no one wants to give in, then they go to the table to report both fouls.

Ultimately, you should talk with your state office to determine if this is the direction they want the officials to go.

Originally Posted by JRutledge (Post 927242)

No he hasn't. The issue has long been discussed beyond this discussion or recent thread where he decided to contact Ms. Wynn. And if he wanted true clarification, then make it clear what we have discussed here and what he has actually debated. Do not leave out the most important part of the discussion. If he wants a true answer, then ask that part of the question. If he wants to get what he got with "The officials must come together and decide...." then ask the question he did. No one here to my knowledge has said simply blowing the whistle means we have to stand by our calls each. It is clear the issue is the preliminary signal and if we still go to a double foul.

Peace

Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 927244)

If the two officials go with one call, hopefully it is the correct call.

Originally Posted by OKREF (Post 926994)

I did ask the right question. Here's what I asked and that was the answer I got.

If there is a double whistle for instance on a block/charge, and one signals block, and one signals PC. Does
the moment of the prelim signals mean we have to report both, or could the
two officials get together and decide which to go with.

Originally Posted by OKREF (Post 926989)

I got this from our association.


In a the case of the double whistle as you have described.....the
mechanic would be for the officials to confer and then report the foul they
believed to have occurred first----just because two whistles were sounded
would not demand that two fouls had to be reported...

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 927226)

I think the question needs to be along the lines of "At what point does it become a required double foul? When the officials each blow the whistle (with the intent of making different calls)? When they each give a prelimninary signal? After they come together and still can't decide?"

Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 927245)

There were two e-mails. Apparently, you missed the second one ... The main point of contention is what happens when the two officials, unfortunately, mistakenly give opposite preliminary signals ...