Intentional Foul by the Shooter
If A-1 drives to the basket and commits an intentional foul on the shot, by definition it's not a player control foul since a PCF is a common foul. If the shot goes in, though, that would mean the basket would count, no? Seems like an odd result. Am I missing something?
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If the try is in flight, it counts. If the try is not in flight, it does not count.
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I cannot imagine a shooter committing an intentional foul. I guess it is possible, but I think it is a solution looking for a problem. But as Bob says, the basket could theoretically count.
Peace |
Other than a good exercise in definitions and enforcement, I agree with Jeff. This would be the definition of a sasquatch.
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Peace |
Well, it's covered in the case book (NFHS & NCAA) so it must have happened at least once :)
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I am not convinced that everything in the casebook actually happened. I think the casebook is trying to define what we should do, not necessarily what is reality or has happened. At least that is not why they posted the play. ;)
Peace |
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I'm sure it wasn't an "intentional foul" by NBA rules, but I could see how this could happen. |
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Once again, sounds like a solution looking for a problem. Of course it "could" happen. A lot of things could happen, but how many have actually seen such a thing and called it that way? Peace |
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Peace |
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Also, if I am not mistaken, there was a play in a college game last season where a 3-point shooter, after releasing the ball and while still in the air, grabbed his defender and threw him down. The shooter was called for a foul. It wasn't deemed an intentional foul, but it could have because it was a non-basketball play. I am thinking this happened in a Marquette or Georgetown game and was perhaps reviewed on this site.
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