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Old Sat Jan 26, 2013, 08:32pm
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Would you have called it a violation? The debate at the time was that it hit A1 after B1 knocked it out of their hands. I did not think it should have been backcourt because the ball was knocked off of A1 by B1.
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Old Sat Jan 26, 2013, 08:36pm
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Originally Posted by gfortner16 View Post
Would you have called it a violation? The debate at the time was that it hit A1 after B1 knocked it out of their hands. I did not think it should have been backcourt because the ball was knocked off of A1 by B1.
Are you asking as an official or a fan? Because I posted the pertinent criteria for a backcourt violation. From your description, there's no debate as to the correct call on this play (trying to lead you to the correct conclusion rather than outright tell you the correct answer).
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Old Sat Jan 26, 2013, 08:39pm
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Originally Posted by gfortner16 View Post
Would you have called it a violation? The debate at the time was that it hit A1 after B1 knocked it out of their hands. I did not think it should have been backcourt because the ball was knocked off of A1 by B1.
Yes you call it. And we have seen it called in several D1 games this season. Your personal feelings on the rule only matter in Montana.
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Old Sun Jan 27, 2013, 02:26am
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Originally Posted by gfortner16 View Post
Would you have called it a violation? The debate at the time was that it hit A1 after B1 knocked it out of their hands. I did not think it should have been backcourt because the ball was knocked off of A1 by B1.
If B1 knocks the ball off A1 and the ball goes OOB, are you giving the ball back to A? No.

While it is not entirely the same as OOB, the Backcourt, for the offensive team, is quite similar except that it only becomes a violation if they are the first to touch it again after it goes to the backcourt.
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Old Sun Jan 27, 2013, 10:36am
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Originally Posted by gfortner16 View Post
Would you have called it a violation? The debate at the time was that it hit A1 after B1 knocked it out of their hands. I did not think it should have been backcourt because the ball was knocked off of A1 by B1.
What if the ball went out of bounds untouched after it hit A1's leg?

You going to say it's still A's ball because B hit it off A's leg?


Didn't think so........
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