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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:29am
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Time out, no possession

Middle school game between two historically heated rivals. Two opposing players on the floor after a loose ball. A1 is sitting upright with his legs in a "V" and the ball winds up between his legs with neither of his hands on the ball. He verbally requests time-out and I grant it. My "flash reasoning" is he has the ball "collected" AND, the next thing to happen will be really ugly. Did Yours Truly err? Would you have granted the TO request?

Last edited by Chris Whitten; Fri Dec 14, 2012 at 09:43am.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:36am
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Sure -- grant the TO after you whistle the violation for a kicked ball.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:40am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Sure -- grant the TO after you whistle the violation for a kicked ball.
Absolutely correct. That is a kicked ball and grant the timeout

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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:47am
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Nothing in the OP says there was a kicked ball. If there was one was it intentional
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:47am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
... whistle the violation for a kicked ball.
You beat me to it.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:47am
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Sorry, gents. As you know, things happen quickly in our game. The ball was never held between the legs or purposely touched by the legs of A1.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:48am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Whitten View Post
Sorry, gents. As you know, things happen quickly in our game. The ball was never held between the legs or purposely touched by the legs of A1.
Then you should not have granted the time-out.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 09:59am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Whitten View Post
Sorry, gents. As you know, things happen quickly in our game. The ball was never held between the legs or purposely touched by the legs of A1.
Then it wasn't "collected" as you indicated in your first post.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 10:17am
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Follow up...

Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Then it wasn't "collected" as you indicated in your first post.

Just so I can get this straight in my brain...if the ball ends up between someone's legs, and he/she brings his/her knees together to "collect" the ball, then we've got a violation for kicked ball?
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 10:26am
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Intentional contact, with one's legs, on the ball

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Originally Posted by stir22 View Post
Just so I can get this straight in my brain...if the ball ends up between someone's legs, and he/she brings his/her knees together to "collect" the ball, then we've got a violation for kicked ball?
The general understanding is that any intentional contact with the ball, using one's legs, is considered a "kick." Such contact is often seen as a "non-basketball action."
Recently, a player, sitting on the floor, put his leg on top of the ball, to control it, when he saw that an opponent was about to grab the ball. I called the violation, to the great disapproval of many of the fans, who voiced their opinion that, "That wasn't a kick!" . . . Smile, throw-in for the other team. Game continues.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 10:38am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rob1968 View Post
The general understanding is that any intentional contact with the ball, using one's legs, is considered a "kick." Such contact is often seen as a "non-basketball action."
Recently, a player, sitting on the floor, put his leg on top of the ball, to control it, when he saw that an opponent was about to grab the ball. I called the violation, to the great disapproval of many of the fans, who voiced their opinion that, "That wasn't a kick!" . . . Smile, throw-in for the other team. Game continues.
Nicely done!
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 11:05am
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Interesting. Post a situation. Don't like the response. Change the situation. Hmmmm.

Did he or did he not contact the ball intentionally with his legs. If yes - kicked ball. If no, then how did he have the ball "collected" without having it in his hands?

Yes, you erred... we just don't know which way yet.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 11:16am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Chris Whitten View Post
... Did Yours Truly err? ...
To simplify the thread.

Yes, you erred either by granting the time-out or by not calling a kicked ball.

Lesson learned, on to the next one.
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 11:17am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Rob1968 View Post
The general understanding is that any intentional contact with the ball, using one's legs, is considered a "kick." Such contact is often seen as a "non-basketball action."
Recently, a player, sitting on the floor, put his leg on top of the ball, to control it, when he saw that an opponent was about to grab the ball. I called the violation, to the great disapproval of many of the fans, who voiced their opinion that, "That wasn't a kick!" . . . Smile, throw-in for the other team. Game continues.
Thank you!!!
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Old Fri Dec 14, 2012, 11:40am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MD Longhorn View Post
Interesting. Post a situation. Don't like the response. Change the situation. Hmmmm.
It's essential not to read too much into what someone says and just read their words. The OP never changed the scenario. You (and others) just read it wrong. The OP never said the ball was being controlled by, or touched by, the player's legs.

Quote:
the ball winds up between his legs with neither of his hands on the ball.
"Winds up" sounds like the ball must have bounced there and come to a rest, without any action by the player's legs.

Then he went on to clarify the same point, and still people are misunderstanding.

I have no kicking violation on this play.

But, no timeout should have been granted either, as the player did not have possession of the ball. The ball resting between the player's legs does not constitute player control, any more than a ball sitting next to a player on the floor does.

No timeout. No kicking violation.
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