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Old Thu Mar 20, 2003, 05:31pm
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Join Date: Aug 2001
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Quote:
Originally posted by Back In The Saddle
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
...so,you would have a personal foul,followed by an intentional or flagrant personal foul-both charged to the same player....
Perhaps I'm exposing my ignorance here...but, if I understand correctly, the first foul was not committed against a shooter (airborne or otherwise). So the ball became dead on the foul. So the second act, a potentially flagrant or malicious act, against an opponent during a dead ball, would be a technical foul, would it not?
BITS,if you go back and read the whole post,I was answering Chuck's "what if?" question about what you would call if a player fouled a shooter twice on the same shot attempt.
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