I'll admit that I should know this but I've had one official tell me one thing and another official something else so I figured, why not go to the "Board" and get a correct ruling.

Situation:

Team A is inbounding the ball AFTER A MADE BASKET. They have trouble getting it in so they call a TO.Now ,I know he can run the baseline before he called the TO but can he afterwards also? I say yes but one particular rec league team was adament that I was wrong so, I went to my partner and he agreed with me that he could run the baseline. The next night the same thing happened while my partner this time(different person) was administering the throw-in. He called the player for the violation and neither team said a word. I asked my partner after the game about it and did not get a good explaination from him. Any help?

Player still can run the baseline. Had they inbounded ball and then called time out, it is a designated spot from the baseline.

Agree with BayState. There is no reason that the team should lose the privilege of running the endline solely because they called a timeout.

However, the official should lose his certification for allowing a team to call a timeout. ;)

Not only can the player of team A run the baseline, but they retain that right after a violation or foul by team B provided that the throw-in still takes place on the endline after the foul or violation.

Z

Z-man
You beat me to it. You are exactly right. I had a phone call after I clicked the reply button ~ good thing I refreshed prior to aswering.

Blackhawk

Not entirely true. If you have an throw-in to A2 right under the basket, and B1 fouls him, the ball would be brought to the baseline but A would not be able to run the baseline.

Peace

.

In your example Rutt, the trhow-in is over when A2 recieves the ball. Thus the succeeding throw-in is a spot throw-in. Not the same thing. I stand with the Z-man.

Blackhawk

It is not about who you stand by or who you do not. I just wanted to illustrate that you can have a foul or violation take place that will take the ball back to the baseline. In the case I described, you cannot retain that previledge. There are people that think regardless of whether a throw-in takes place or not, they can retain this right. Also part of the problem is that this play in not directly illustrated in the Casebook and it does not make it clear when that previledge ends. But I can assume that the NF did not intend for that to be the case. Especially with the case plays they gave in describing this new change that was last year.

Peace

Rut:

Black hawk and Z are 100% correct it is the "not entirely true" statement that they are taking offense to. The throwin is over as soon as A2 legally touches the ball. The subsequent foul by B1 is not part of a throwin so it does not fall under the provisions therein.

Casebook plays 7.5.7SitC&D cover it.The phrase used in "D" is "before the throw-in is completed".That gives us the guide to go by.

I guess I've never thought of this before, but are you guys saying if I have a throw in allowing the running of the baseline, and I have a pushing foul on team B before the throw in ends, Team A still has the privilage of running the baseline on the throw in? That's what it sounds like you are saying. Also, what kind of violation could they violate besides crossing the out of bound line? I can't think of any right now.

Kicked ball on the inbound pass.

Kick Ball
Reaching Through

Zebra1,you need to read casebook plays 7.5.7SitA-F to understand the logic used.
1)If you have a pushing foul on the defense before the throw-in ends,it depends on WHERE the foul occurs and thus where the throw-in spot subsequently is. If you bring the ball back to the base line as the normal spot,they can still run the baseline.
2)A kicked ball by the defense,that brings the throw-in back to the baseline,will allow the team throwing the ball in to retain the right to still run the baseline