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Here's an easy way to think of this play....
The big question is "who violated?" When you change the play a little, it becomes very clear.
What if, instead of A2, it had actually been B2 that touched/caught the ball with one foot OOB? Would this be a violation on A1 giving the ball to B? No, it is the player who catches/touches the ball while OOB who has violated.
If it were the thrower, B would only need to get a foot OOB and touch the ball to force a violation on the thrower. Of course, this is NOT the intent...to give a team the ball for touching it OOB.
Violation on the receiver of the pass, not the thrower. The throwin spot is the spot where the ball is touched OOB.
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Mon Feb 24, 2003, 01:45pm
Hybrid Mode
