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I think that it is pretty obvious that the foul occured before the horn sounded. Here's my reasoning;
- most referees that I know do a mental reset when they hear the horn sound, so if the referee wasn't blowing the whistle when the horn sounded, he would not have blown it (for the foul) at all.
- if he was in the process of calling the foul when the horn sounded, then given human reaction time, the foul must have occured at least 1 to 2 tenths of a second before the horn sounded.
All in all I'd say it ws a good call.
AOEAMO,
SamC
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Thu Jan 02, 2003, 03:17pm
Hybrid Mode
