Also, one more question. This happens almost every single game!
A1 shoots it, but airballs. He catches the ball. Some call travel, since he caught his own airball, but he says it's not, because it looked like a shot. Who's right??

In High School and College this is not a violation. I think in the NBA it is.

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by John B:
Ever see this one Coach?

The ball gets dumped down to A1 on the post. A1 takes two dribbles. Picks up his/her dribble and while in the process loses control (fumbles). While the ball has not yet touched the floor. A1 picks up and returns to the floor what was their pivot foot. Before the ball ever touches the floor, A1 regains control and scores.

Everyone screams walk!

Dribble, Fumble, Recover. Legal.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
I may have seen both situations and not recognized them myself. I think that many refs would call the walk (or the DD in the case before), but what I may have thought were missed calls or "letting it go" may have been good no calls. I will be more alert to this in the future. You guys are great.

Ilya, You have to be more specific. Maybe this will help. Once you pick up the ball. You pivot on your right foot( Left foot is picked up to spin). You may put the left foot down and pick up the right foot and shoot BEFORE you put the right foot down. Whenever a player shoots(at his own basket) there is NO team control. So if airball any player can get the ball.

Hey Ilya

I think the travel rule is everywhere the same:
U have one pivot and one non pivot leg. You lift your pivot, you can eighter pass or shoot. The ball should not be in your possesion when that pivot foot reaches the floor again.
If you understand this travelling rule, u can determine for urself if it's a travel

Ok, thanks. I knew that rule, but sometimes it's hard to determine yourself http://www.refereeforum.com/ubb/smile.gif
Also, another question http://www.refereeforum.com/ubb/biggrin.gif
When i shoot FT, is it illegal to go over FT line before the ball hits the rim?

hey ilya
I think that everywhere it's the same.
FIBA rules:
The shooter can not enter the "Three-second" area before the ball hits the rim.
When I ref, I try to determine why the shooter entered the area. If while shooting he accidentally steps across the line, no problem, I just let them play. But If the shooter figures that his shot might miss, and he tries to get the rebound before the ball hits the ring, then I call the violation. He is clearly trying to get an unfair advantage.

I wish there were more players taking their time to ask questions!! Keep it up, ilya. Some day you will be a fabulous player (who knows, you'll be joining us refs!! http://www.refereeforum.com/ubb/smile.gif)

Hehe, thanks. I will try to be a starter at high school. I'm kind of short, though http://www.refereeforum.com/ubb/frown.gif only 5'4 right now (14 y.o)

<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial, Geneva">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by Rehuel:
When I ref, I try to determine why the shooter entered the area. If while shooting he accidentally steps across the line, no problem, I just let them play.<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>

Rehuel,

Maybe for younger levels this approach is OK, but for the more skilled levels I'm not so sure. Whether he stepped across the line accidentally or purposely to gain an advantage, the advantage for the same degree of stepping across is still the same---therefore, violation. Now, if the player is only a centimeter over the line, I might choose to ignore it and remind him on the next throw, but otherwise we don't need to determine intent. I think this is one of those rules that is more "cut and dry" than some others: either he's over the line or he isn't.

[This message has been edited by Todd VandenAkker (edited April 28, 2000).]

Also 1st half, 2nd half. Maybe call closer the 1st half since their shooting at the opponents end.