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Old Tue Nov 12, 2002, 07:11am
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Am I correct in believing that the warnings for delay 4-46-1,2,3 are three separate warnings? So if a team is warned for interfering with the ball following a goal in first quarter and then in the fourth quarter violates the throw-in plane, they do not receive a technical foul, but only another warning.

Sorry, that was supposed to be a question.

[Edited by nevadaref on Nov 12th, 2002 at 07:29 AM]
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Old Tue Nov 12, 2002, 07:19am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
I am correct in believing that the warnings for delay 4-46-1,2,3 are three separate warnings. So if a team is warned for interfering with the ball following a goal in first quarter and then in the fourth quarter violates the throw-in plane, they do not receive a technical foul, but only another warning.
Nevadaref,

That works.
mick
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Old Tue Nov 12, 2002, 08:24am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Nevadaref
I am correct in believing ...
Nice modesty.

Note that 2 of the 3 rules where the penalties are described (9-2, 10-1-5c, 10-1-5d) refer to "this warning" -- meaning the specific warning for the infraction.

It's implied in 9-2, too, but it's not stated explicitly.

The cases also (generally) refer to a specific warning.


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Old Wed Nov 13, 2002, 12:45am
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But be sure you keep them separate in your own head, because no score table that's been working less than 25 years understands these rules. And as you accumulate warnings, you'll have to continue to explain it to the coaches. It just seems to be the way it is. And then, about the time you're keeping it all straight, someone reaches across the oob line and slaps the ball, and you have to explain that this T requires NO warning. Ugh!
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