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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Fri Nov 08, 2002, 10:16am
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Maybe one of our esteemed basketball historians could help out on this one?

To me, it seems as if a single intentional foul takes care of the situation where B1 and B2 come up and bearhug A1. Does anyone know when the intentional foul rule came into effect, in relation to the multiple foul rule?
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Fri Nov 08, 2002, 11:10am
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Send a message via AIM to Tim Roden
You haven't worked with some of the ref's I've had to put on my scratch list.
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