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Old Sat Oct 26, 2002, 03:27am
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This is all a question of timing. It seems in the question that the shooter is fouled before the possible PC situation--TWEET, count the basket, shoot one. That's it. Once you call that first foul, the play is over, and no PC foul is possible. Unless, of course, you deem the impact after the foul to be intentional, i.e., a T. Now, if you rule that the shooter commits the PC foul at the same time B2 fouls him, that's a pretty standard double personal fouls, no shots, use the AP arrow, and, as a PC foul occured, you can't count the bucket...yes?
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