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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 10:20am
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If they were going after a loose ball, no foul. If they were going after each other - different scenario.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 10:25am
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Originally Posted by RobbyinTN View Post
If they were going after a loose ball, no foul. If they were going after each other - different scenario.
It doesn't even have to be a loose ball. Could be a pass.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 10:28am
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But in the OP, they were both loose balls scenarios - thus why I stated it the way I did.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 10:34am
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And we segue into...
Quote:
Originally Posted by RobbyinTN View Post
But in the OP, they were both loose balls scenarios - thus why I stated it the way I did.

As a fan of the original ABA, I found this to be a great read. The Marvin Barnes time machine quote is worth the price of the book.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 01:31pm
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Originally Posted by 26 Year Gap View Post

As a fan of the original ABA, I found this to be a great read. The Marvin Barnes time machine quote is worth the price of the book.
One of the most unique reads you'll ever have -- if only for the way Terry and his publishers organize and present it. Can't recall another book like it, though it's been a few years since I read it.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 01:41pm
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Originally Posted by Snaqwells View Post
It doesn't even have to be a loose ball. Could be a pass.
Isn't a pass a loose ball?
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 02:08pm
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Originally Posted by BktBallRef View Post
Isn't a pass a loose ball?
Not in my book.
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 02:33pm
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Okay, now ONE player on the floor...
A-1 is on the floor, with a loose ball within his reach. B-2 dives over A-1 and while his hands are right over the ball, his chest/torso land on top of A-1.

I had a foul. Coach played the "he was going for the ball" card. I'm certainly going to give some leniancy if you're playing the ball, but not if you use your opponent as a landing strip. Besides, I believe someone here established that, crazy as it may sound, A-1 is entitled to that spot on the floor.

Thoughts?
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 02:43pm
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Easy foul call. Aren't a large percentage of fouls results of someone 'going for the ball'?
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 02:46pm
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post
A-1 is on the floor, with a loose ball within his reach. B-2 dives over A-1 and while his hands are right over the ball, his chest/torso land on top of A-1.

I had a foul. Coach played the "he was going for the ball" card. I'm certainly going to give some leniancy if you're playing the ball, but not if you use your opponent as a landing strip. Besides, I believe someone here established that, crazy as it may sound, A-1 is entitled to that spot on the floor.

Thoughts?
Thoughts: "He was going for the ball" is in The Coaches Handbook of Things to Say When You Don't Know What to Say. It's right between "That's gotta be something" and "How can you not call that?"
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Old Mon Dec 20, 2010, 03:17pm
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Originally Posted by bainsey View Post

Coach played the "he was going for the ball" card.
I see that he was, Coach. That's why the foul wasn't intentional.
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