Illegal Throw-In After Made Basket
 

Another question that's been on my mind--

Team A scores a basket, and B has an endline throw-in. B1 retrieves the ball while it is still in bounds (after it has gone through the basket) and passes/dribbles up the court (without throwing it in from OOB). Is this a violation (A ball underneath) or is it just whistled dead and team B instructed to make a proper throw-in?

What if B1 has one foot OOB and one foot in when he throws it in? What if he has one foot OOB and one in the air?

It would be a violation after five seconds.

That's an inbound violation.

Then he's legally OOB and there's no violation.

Violation when it's obvious that Team B isn't going to be throwing the ball in.

Also if B1 has one foot out of bounds and one foot inbounds, then it's a violation. If B1 has one foot out of bounds and the other in the air, then a legal throw-in.

Pretty sure that you don't have to wait 5 seconds. A casebook play came out a couple of year ago that said it's a violation once it's obvious that the team won't be throwing the ball in.

So if they don't throw it in and start moving down the court, just count 5 seconds and then call a violation? What if other activity (e.g. a foul, a score) has occurred?

Don't wait five seconds. Once you realize that Team B won't be throwing the ball in, call the violation. It'll be obvious when Team B won't be throwing the ball in.

An unusual one.....for me anyhow
 

Last night G JV Scrimmage. A1 scores. A2 picks up the ball while it's out of bounds and starts running the endline to inbound the ball. Me = :eek: TWEET!

Delay of Game violation.

All I could think of is she must have been confused from practices.

Funny thing was no one from B was really protesting or trying to get the ball from her.......start of a new season. Shrug.

Is a delay of game warning the right call here? I don't know if I'd call it especially if Team B wasn't going for the ball. I'd just blow my whistle and reset the throw-in for Team B.

I thought about letting it go at first, but called it because it temporarily confused team B and prevented them from getting the ball and inbounding it. A2 ran a pretty good way down the line and used several seconds before I blew it dead. Just my opinion. Other thoughts?

Isn't there a casebook play that tells us that if we believe Team A did this accidentally, we're directed to reset the play and give Team B the throw in? And if we think Team A did this on purpose, we charge them with a technical foul?

1) Violation as per NFHS rule 9-2-2

2) Violation as per NFHS rule 9-2-2

3) Legal. The thrower was OOB by rule..4-35-1(a).

I don't see that it's any different than A2 knocking the ball away after it comes through the net. She delayed Tean B from getting the ball and inbounding it.

DOG warning works for me.

I am too busy watching both the Browns and Steelers win their games to do a search about the long long thread about this time of play a couple of years ago. I hope that one of the young ones on the Forum will do the search. I think "we" (as in the members of this Forum) even got the NFHS to issue an Intepretation on the play.

MTD, Sr.

9.2.2 SITUATION C: A1 scores a basket. After the ball goes through the net, B1
grabs it and makes a move toward the end line as though preparing to make a
throw-in. However, B1 never legally steps out of bounds, both feet remain
inbounds. B1 immediately passes the ball up the court to a fast-breaking teammate,
who scores a basket. RULING: Cancel Team B's goal, throw-in violation on
B1. The ball was at B1's disposal after the made basket to make a throw-in. B1
must be out of bounds to make a legal throw-in. (7-4-3; 7-5-7)

Thank you for saving me the trouble.