Originally Posted by Mark Padgett (Post 688040)

Let me throw this into the mix just to confuse things even more. A1 is dribbling the ball. B1 touches the ball. During the time that B1 is touching the ball, A1 fouls B1. Would you call a player control foul on A1? Remember - player control is defined as holding or dribbling a live ball inbounds.

Originally Posted by mbcrowder (Post 688011)

"An opponent touching a dribble doesn't end that dribble unless player control is lost."

Originally Posted by Scrapper1 (Post 688041)

You haven't given us enough information. Did B1's touch cause A1 to lose player control?

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 688056)

I'm sorry guys, but I'm just a little confused by this thread.

A1 is dribbling the ball, and decides to pick up his dribble with two hands firmly on the ball, thus ending the dribble. Defender B1 reaches in and attempts to steal the ball from A1, but A1 is able to pull the ball away from B1 and B1 is only able to lightly touch the ball. A1 does not lose the ball, but is able to keep two hands on the ball. Three-quarters of a second later, A1 decides to start a new dribble. I've got an illegal dribble violation here. Please correct me if I'm wrong.

Now let's get really "weird" here. A2 picks up her dribble, thus ending the dribble. During a pivot, A1 somehow fumbles the ball, which takes a few bounces on the floor, and also accidentally hits defender B2 in the back of the leg, before A1 re-establishes possession of the ball. A2 decides at this point to start a new dribble. What do you have here?

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688059)

Your second play meets the requirements of 9-5-3, and is thus a legal dribble.

Originally Posted by Mark Padgett (Post 688058)

That was my point. Did it or didn't it? That's kind of the whole issue on this thread.

Originally Posted by BillyMac (Post 688065)

NFHS 9-5: A player shall not dribble a second time after his/her first dribble has ended, unless it is after he/she has lost control because of:
ART. 1 . . . A try for field goal.
ART. 2 . . . A touch by an opponent.
ART. 3 . . . A pass or fumble which has then touched, or been touched by, another player.

mbyron: Thanks.

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688078)

Your welcome. ;)

Originally Posted by JRutledge (Post 687995)

That would not work. They clarified that if the ball is touched by an opponent, then the dribble has ended. So that sentence would be wrong.

Peace

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688002)

Reference, please. The plain language of 4-15-4(d) backs up bainsey:

"The dribble ends when...
(d) The ball touches or is touched by an opponent and causes the dribbler to
lose control."

Originally Posted by JRutledge (Post 688029)

I guess I cannot imagine you touching the ball and not losing the dribble. I would think based on the rhythm of the action that would be disrupt that action and cause some sort of control loss. And I would not use a statement that might apply to a very rare situation where control is not lost. Stick with the rule and stop always trying to find a term that applies to everything. Very rare is that going to ever apply.

Peace

Originally Posted by Nevadaref (Post 688298)

:eek: This kind of mistake is not expected from you! :D

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688323)

Apologies. We have a new baby in the household, and I'm operating on limited sleep. :eek:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee (Post 688325)

At what point does it become an old baby? :confused:

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688328)

You tell me, you old baby. :p

Originally Posted by mbyron (Post 688323)

Apologies. We have a new baby in the household, and I'm operating on limited sleep. :eek: