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-   -   After all these years - a first! (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/56757-after-all-these-years-first.html)

Mark Padgett Wed Jan 27, 2010 02:50pm

After all these years - a first!
 
As you know, my experience goes back to the Naismith days but I had a situation in last night's 8th grade boys game that was a first for me.

A1 had a habit of "dribbling" the ball whenever he was going to inbound. As long as he kept the ball hitting OOB, he's fine, and he would always grab the ball and inbound within five seconds. In the third quarter, he was doing it again and B1 reached across and hit the ball during one of the dribbles. As I said, I've never had this happen before.

OK you guys, is it just a DOG warning or is it a technical (the same as if B1 hit the ball while A1 was holding it)? My partner was the calling official and he called it a DOG warning. I didn't challenge it and neither did either of the coaches. Were we right or wrong?

fiasco Wed Jan 27, 2010 02:57pm

I'm calling a DOG warning in this case.

Rule states it has to be in the player's "possession" to be a T. This is not a dribble, so when the ball is loose, I'm saying he/she doesn't have "possession."

just another ref Wed Jan 27, 2010 02:57pm

He may not touch or dislodge the ball while in possession of the thrower. If he is bouncing the ball, he is in possession.

T

fiasco Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:00pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by just another ref (Post 656006)
If he is bouncing the ball, he is in possession.

Based on what?

shavano Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:01pm

I'm going with DOG warning ( breaking the plane) in this case, Padgett. Mostly because of the age group involved....

just another ref Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by fiasco (Post 656009)
Based on what?

Based on the dictionary definition of "in possession," since there is no rulebook

definition.

bob jenkins Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:06pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by fiasco (Post 656009)
Based on what?


Common sense. Are you going to allow B1 to bat the ball away so there's a 5-second violation on A?

Once A has the ball, they "posess" it until it's released on an inbounds pass.

Indianaref Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:10pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 656013)
Common sense. Are you going to allow B1 to bat the ball away so there's a 5-second violation on A?

Once A has the ball, they "posess" it until it's released on an inbounds pass.

What if A1 fumbles the ball on the out of bounds side, then B1 reaches over and touches the ball?

just another ref Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:14pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Indianaref (Post 656014)
What if A1 fumbles the ball on the out of bounds side, then B1 reaches over and touches the ball?

I would still consider him to be in possession.

fiasco Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:24pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 656013)
Common sense. Are you going to allow B1 to bat the ball away so there's a 5-second violation on A?

No, because if they bat the ball away, I'm blowing my whistle for a DOG warning, so that's not an issue.

We can argue about the semantics of "possession" in this instance, but either way, I'm not calling a T in Mark's OP.

Jurassic Referee Wed Jan 27, 2010 03:43pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 656013)
Common sense. Are you going to allow B1 to bat the ball away so there's a 5-second violation on A?

Once A has the ball, they "possess" it until it's released on an inbounds pass.

Agree. My common sense says to use the same basic concept as player control-"holding or dribbling a live ball".

sseltser Wed Jan 27, 2010 05:04pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee (Post 656028)
Agree. My common sense says to use the same basic concept as player control-"holding or dribbling a live ball".

Except he's not holding or dribbling;)

fiasco Wed Jan 27, 2010 05:09pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee (Post 656028)
Agree. My common sense says to use the same basic concept as player control-"holding or dribbling a live ball".

Except the rules explicitly say that there is no player control on a throw in.

Freddy Wed Jan 27, 2010 05:13pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by sseltser (Post 656050)
Except he's not holding or dribbling;)

Rule 4:
ART. 3 . . . The throw-in and the throw-in count begin when the ball is at the disposal of a player of the team entitled to it.
ART. 4 . . . The throw-in count ends when the ball is released by the thrower so the passed ball goes directly into the court.
Would it contribute to the discussion to mention that once the ball is put at the disposal of the thrower, it's technically in his possession until he releases the ball to go into the court?
Anything the defense does to make contact with the ball while on the other side of the line between those two points of time would seem to justify a T, it seems.

zm1283 Wed Jan 27, 2010 05:29pm

T

Mark Padgett Wed Jan 27, 2010 05:32pm

Guys - does this help? I'm sure we would all agree that if B1 reached over the line while A1 was "dribbling" and fouled him, we would call it intentional. Should the same "reasoning" apply to the T for hitting the ball?

Adam Wed Jan 27, 2010 06:21pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by fiasco (Post 656051)
Except the rules explicitly say that there is no player control on a throw in.

It doesn't mean you can't use the precedent to make a ruling on a play not specifically covered by the rules.

Loudwhistle Wed Jan 27, 2010 06:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mark Padgett (Post 656061)
Guys - does this help? I'm sure we would all agree that if B1 reached over the line while A1 was "dribbling" and fouled him, we would call it intentional. Should the same "reasoning" apply to the T for hitting the ball?

Here's how I have it in my mind:
reach through plane and no contact on thrower or ball-->DOG
reach through plane and hit ball, whether its in the throwers hand or not-->T and first DOG
reach through plane and hit thrower-->IF, and first DOG

Something seems amiss, fire away.

gslefeb Wed Jan 27, 2010 06:51pm

Except if A1 releases the ball on a throw-in pass; B1 then has no restrictions. 9-2-10

Mark Padgett Wed Jan 27, 2010 07:08pm

Maybe the definitive argument would be it's a T because it's really the same as if B1 reached across and hit a pass from A1 to A2, who were both OOB following a basket by team B. In that case, the ball isn't in A1's hands and if he's "dribbling", it's just as legal for him to do that as if he's passing OOB to A2.

EndEx Wed Jan 27, 2010 07:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Mark Padgett (Post 656101)
Maybe the definitive argument would be it's a T because it's really the same as if B1 reached across and hit a pass from A1 to A2, who were both OOB following a basket by team B. In that case, the ball isn't in A1's hands and if he's "dribbling", it's just as legal for him to do that as if he's passing OOB to A2.

This is what I was thinking.

just another ref Wed Jan 27, 2010 07:32pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by fiasco (Post 656051)
Except the rules explicitly say that there is no player control on a throw in.


Player control has nothing to do with this play.

The rule on this play makes no mention of player control.

representing Wed Jan 27, 2010 07:48pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by zm1283 (Post 656059)
T

Well Said. +1

For the age group however, I would use common sense and tell the player not to do that and if he were to do that in a JV or Varsity game, he would most likely get a Technical. At least if I was doing the game.

bob jenkins Wed Jan 27, 2010 08:05pm

THere's a case play where A doesn't come out of a huddle after a TO. The official puts the ball on the floor. B crosses the line.

Ruling: B gets a DOG warning, and not a T, but only because A NEVER had the ball.

I read that as, if A EVER has the ball, then it's a T.

Ignats75 Wed Jan 27, 2010 08:20pm

What he said ^^^^^^^^

He's a very smart guy.

Freddy Wed Jan 27, 2010 09:30pm

Ignats' Motto
 
Watched a coupla middle school girls games tonight just for fun. At halftime one of our fine officials on the crew mentioned he was having to expend some effort to explain to the head coach why he couldn't grant her assistant's request for a timeout. I told him to tell the head coach, "Look, I'll listen to the organ grinder, but not the monkey."
Not an exact quote, but they were still laughing minutes later when administering the OOB to start the third quarter! :)
Thanx, Ignats.

CLH Wed Jan 27, 2010 10:27pm

No player control? So if the thrower requests a timeout because he's almost reached 5 seconds you're not going to grant it? If a player is dribbling the ball inbounds does he have player control?

The thrower had control/possession...the defender hit the ball before it was released on a pass...it is a technical foul, no warning. It's pretty cut and dry

26 Year Gap Wed Jan 27, 2010 10:54pm

Someone mentioned what if he lost the ball while dribbling and could the defender touch it then. If he lost the ball and it went out of the 6 ft space, I have a throw-in violation on the offense. [Does this kid have an elongated FT routine?] On the play described, it meets the definition of a T. Especially if the score was tied and it was near the end of regulation.

TimTaylor Wed Jan 27, 2010 10:54pm

IMHO, correct call is a T. Whether he's holding, dribbling OB, or simply sets the ball on the floor OB is irrelevant to the defender's action. No need to overcomplicate it - by specific rule, the throw-in boundary violation restrictions on the defender don't end until the ball is released on the inbound pass.

BillyMac Thu Jan 28, 2010 07:32am

Memories ...
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by CLH (Post 656177)
If the thrower requests a timeout because he's almost reached 5 seconds you're not going to grant it?

Change Of Status just rolled over in his grave.


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