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-   -   Easy question for the seasoned guys. (https://forum.officiating.com/basketball/54287-easy-question-seasoned-guys.html)

JP21 Tue Aug 11, 2009 05:21pm

Easy question for the seasoned guys.
 
Old question but need some clarification.

Offensive player (A1) pump fakes defender (B1) into the air. A couple of scenarios.
1. A1 initiates contact on his shot by jumping into B1, who has gone straight up with his arms? Contact is enough to have to make a call.
2. A1 pump fakes defender into the air and tries to draw the foul by maintianing his pivot foot , and steps into B1.

Easy call if B1 hammers A1, but the question is more towards B1 going up straight and not initiating contact with A1. Is there a level of initiating too much contact from A1 not to get the call or get a foul called on A1.

Not knowing the answer here, provide me with the "rights" of the defender even though he is out of position, where B1 may not be called for the foul, and where A1 could be called for the foul for initiating contact even though A1 got B1 out of position.....thanks...JP

The rule book (NCAA) referenced defender is not in the guarded position unless he in on the ground?

Ch1town Tue Aug 11, 2009 06:42pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JP21 (Post 619990)
Offensive player (A1) pump fakes defender (B1) into the air. A couple of scenarios.
1. A1 initiates contact on his shot by jumping into B1, who has gone straight up with his arms? Contact is enough to have to make a call.
2. A1 pump fakes defender into the air and tries to draw the foul by maintianing his pivot foot , and steps into B1.

Easy call if B1 hammers A1, but the question is more towards B1 going up straight and not initiating contact with A1. Is there a level of initiating too much contact from A1 not to get the call or get a foul called on A1.

Not knowing the answer here, provide me with the "rights" of the defender even though he is out of position, where B1 may not be called for the foul, and where A1 could be called for the foul for initiating contact even though A1 got B1 out of position.....thanks...JP

The rule book (NCAA) referenced defender is not in the guarded position unless he in on the ground?

A defender may jump straight up & extend their arms vertically and still be in legal guarding position... at ALL levels of play.

If A1 is intiating the contact, I wouldn't call a foul in A1s favor even IF the defender doesn't have LGP.

That being said, I have rarely seen an offensive foul called on A1 for the pump fake & intiating the contact on jump shots. Maybe on a lay-up, but rarely on the jumper... usually a no call.

Nevadaref Tue Aug 11, 2009 06:45pm

The only correct call by rule for the scenarios which you have detailed is a player control foul.
The defender is allowed to jump straight up within his vertical plane as well as extend his arms vertically. He should not be penalized for those actions.

If the offensive player initiates the contact, then the official should not penalize the defender under your circumstances. Only the offensive player would be at risk, by rule, of being charged with a foul.

Ch1town Tue Aug 11, 2009 06:59pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by Nevadaref (Post 620002)
The only correct call by rule for the scenarios which you have detailed is a player control foul.

Only the offensive player would be at risk, by rule, of being charged with a foul.

I rarely see the defender get displaced or put at a disadvantage (shot usually misses the mark) when the offensive player creates that type of contact on a jump shoot. In that instance, is a no-call the correct call, by rule?

Adam Wed Aug 12, 2009 12:34am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Ch1town (Post 620007)
I rarely see the defender get displaced or put at a disadvantage (shot usually misses the mark) when the offensive player creates that type of contact on a jump shoot. In that instance, is a no-call the correct call, by rule?

In my opinion, yes.

Adam Wed Aug 12, 2009 12:38am

Quote:

Originally Posted by JP21 (Post 619990)
Old question but need some clarification.

Offensive player (A1) pump fakes defender (B1) into the air. A couple of scenarios.
1. A1 initiates contact on his shot by jumping into B1, who has gone straight up with his arms? Contact is enough to have to make a call.
2. A1 pump fakes defender into the air and tries to draw the foul by maintianing his pivot foot , and steps into B1.

Easy call if B1 hammers A1, but the question is more towards B1 going up straight and not initiating contact with A1. Is there a level of initiating too much contact from A1 not to get the call or get a foul called on A1.

Not knowing the answer here, provide me with the "rights" of the defender even though he is out of position, where B1 may not be called for the foul, and where A1 could be called for the foul for initiating contact even though A1 got B1 out of position.....thanks...JP

The rule book (NCAA) referenced defender is not in the guarded position unless he in on the ground?

How is defender out of position? He jumped in the air, vertically, which he has every right to do.

Your final sentence is incorrect. Initiating guarding position must be done on the floor, but a player may jump and not lose it.

When you say, "Contact is enough to have to make a call," what do you mean? Do you mean the offensive player wasn't able to complete his shot? So what? He is responsible for the contact, by rule, in your scenario. Don't penalize the defense for doing what he is allowed to do.

If the coach questions you and you feel so inclined, you can easily say, "Coach, defense was in position and your guy initiated the contact."

Nevadaref Wed Aug 12, 2009 03:56am

Quote:

Originally Posted by Ch1town (Post 620007)
I rarely see the defender get displaced or put at a disadvantage (shot usually misses the mark) when the offensive player creates that type of contact on a jump shoot. In that instance, is a no-call the correct call, by rule?

I was basing my response on the OP writing, "Contact is enough to have to make a call." If one has to make a call, it's PC.

You altered the condition which he stipulated by stating that the defender isn't displaced or put at a disadvantage. That was not the scenario which I was answering.

TheOracle Wed Aug 12, 2009 01:00pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by JP21 (Post 619990)
Old question but need some clarification.

Offensive player (A1) pump fakes defender (B1) into the air. A couple of scenarios.
1. A1 initiates contact on his shot by jumping into B1, who has gone straight up with his arms? Contact is enough to have to make a call.
2. A1 pump fakes defender into the air and tries to draw the foul by maintianing his pivot foot , and steps into B1.

Easy call if B1 hammers A1, but the question is more towards B1 going up straight and not initiating contact with A1. Is there a level of initiating too much contact from A1 not to get the call or get a foul called on A1.

Not knowing the answer here, provide me with the "rights" of the defender even though he is out of position, where B1 may not be called for the foul, and where A1 could be called for the foul for initiating contact even though A1 got B1 out of position.....thanks...JP

The rule book (NCAA) referenced defender is not in the guarded position unless he in on the ground?

A defender reacting to a pump fake very, very rarely jumps straight up and stays vertical. Defenders falling for a pump fake got beat. The offensive player made a move and got an advantage. Barring a completely blatant shoulder lead through the defender's torso, knocking him backwards, I could not even fathom a credible PC foul in this scenario.

bbcof83 Wed Aug 12, 2009 03:03pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by TheOracle (Post 620152)
A defender reacting to a pump fake very, very rarely jumps straight up and stays vertical. Defenders falling for a pump fake got beat. The offensive player made a move and got an advantage. Barring a completely blatant shoulder lead through the defender's torso, knocking him backwards, I could not even fathom a credible PC foul in this scenario.

Just being a devil's advocate here because I agree with the Oracle...

Say the defender is jumping forward toward the shooter, thus contact is his fault, but the offensive player also gives a completely blatant shoulder to the torso of the defender. Who is the foul on? Can't be PC because the defender isn't legal. Can we have a double foul? Both players have committed a foul at the exact same time.

bob jenkins Wed Aug 12, 2009 03:11pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bbcof83 (Post 620172)
Can't be PC because the defender isn't legal.

I don't think that's the rule. Being legal just gives the defender "extra" movement. Just because the defender isn't legal doesn't me he can't be fouled.

I'd judge whether the defender's "forward jump" would have caused contact if the offensive player had not also moved forward. If so, I'd likely have a foul on the defense. If the defender would not have made contact, then the offense must give him room to come down. So, it's either a PC foul or a no-call (if no advantage was gained -- and I'd say that's the case in most "real life" plays where the offense moves forward).

gslefeb Wed Aug 12, 2009 05:55pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by bob jenkins (Post 620180)
I'd judge whether the defender's "forward jump" would have caused contact if the offensive player had not also moved forward. If so, I'd likely have a foul on the defense. If the defender would not have made contact, then the offense must give him room to come down. So, it's either a PC foul or a no-call (if no advantage was gained -- and I'd say that's the case in most "real life" plays where the offense moves forward).

I thought:
A ball handler or shooter does not have to "give him room to come down". But a player without the ball can not move under and occupy the landing space of an airborne player (must provide a place to land)

Am I wrong?

In the OP question - No foul on defense, probably no call on A1 unless he under cuts the airborne B1.

In the next example - depends on how much B1 moves forward - if slightly same as above, if more then if contact foul on B1.

Camron Rust Wed Aug 12, 2009 06:04pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by gslefeb (Post 620208)
I thought:
A ball handler or shooter does not have to "give him room to come down". But a player without the ball can not move under and occupy the landing space of an airborne player (must provide a place to land)

Am I wrong?

In the OP question - No foul on defense, probably no call on A1 unless he under cuts the airborne B1.

In the next example - depends on how much B1 moves forward - if slightly same as above, if more then if contact foul on B1.

I know of no exception that allows a player with the ball to move into the path of an airborne player.

gslefeb Thu Aug 13, 2009 09:42am

If the Airborne playing does not have LGP; then they are responsible for the contact.

A1 with ball is stationary - B1 comes from the side and Jumps to get in front of A1. A1 dribbles forward and contacts B1 who is still in air. This is a foul on B1 as B1 never had LGP, even though A1 did not give him a place to land.

If B1 has LGP; and they jump forward into the path - I believe B1 is responsible for the contact as a defender can not move forward into the path of A1, they can get to the space first but not move into A1.

Generally, you see this play as a defender comes flying to block a shot. A1 pulls the ball down and dribble drives, moving into the landing space of B1. B1 lands on A1, 100% of the time this is called on B1.

M&M Guy Thu Aug 13, 2009 11:04am

Quote:

Originally Posted by gslefeb (Post 620277)
If the Airborne playing does not have LGP; then they are responsible for the contact.

A1 with ball is stationary - B1 comes from the side and Jumps to get in front of A1. A1 dribbles forward and contacts B1 who is still in air. This is a foul on B1 as B1 never had LGP, even though A1 did not give him a place to land.

Do you have a rule or case reference on this?

What about 4-45-7, which states: "The player with the ball is to be given no more protection or consideration than the defender in judging which player has violated the rules"? So, if a player with the ball moves under an airborne defender, how is that different than the defender moving under an airborne shooter?

Ch1town Thu Aug 13, 2009 11:20am

Quote:

Originally Posted by M&M Guy (Post 620288)
Do you have a rule or case reference on this?

What about 4-45-7, which states: "The player with the ball is to be given no more protection or consideration than the defender in judging which player has violated the rules"? So, if a player with the ball moves under an airborne defender, how is that different than the defender moving under an airborne shooter?


One has the ball, the other one doesn't :D


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