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Old Mon Apr 13, 2009, 02:17pm
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Question Here's a puzzler

In another thread, tjchamp brought up a point about the backcourt violation rule. As we all know (at least most of us, anyhow), there are four criteria needed for a backcourt violation.

1) there must be team control
2) the ball must have achieved frontcourt status
3) the team in team control must be the last team to touch the ball in the frontcourt and...
4) that same team must be first to touch the ball after it has been in the backcourt

His situation was (I'm extrapolating) what if A1 had the ball in the front court, his pass to A2 is tipped by B1 who is standing in A's frontcourt, the ball then travels in the air toward A's backcourt where it is next touched by A3 who is standing in A's backcourt. His point was that when A3 touched the ball it established backcourt status for the ball but it still had frontcourt status when he touched it, therefore team A (because of A3's action) was last to touch in the frontcourt and also first to touch in the backcourt and, of course, the tip by B1 didn't end team A's team control because a tip doesn't establish player control which is what would be needed to change team control in this instance.

Can A3's touch accomplish both points at the same time? What do you think?
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